2006-10-22 10:42:35 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
By closing the eyes, the sensory input to the brain to preceive moving objects is lost and therefore it does not register that we are moving. This happens only when the car is moving with uniform velocity. However, when the car accelerates (changing velocity), the change in velocity results in senosry inputs other than just the visual inputs and therefore we will know we are moving. In these 2 cases of constant velocity and changing velocity, since inertia is defined as "amount of resistance to change in velocity" or commonly through Newton's first law, this perceived notion when eye is closed can be thought of as inertia.
2006-10-22 11:53:07 · answer #1 · answered by KKV 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
As to that things change: so what! Talk about a lot of socalled scietific hand waving to over categorize (an error in critical thinking of hasty overgeneralization; there is such as the set of facts all true yet appear to be contradictory) a phenomenon that could not keep the second of theromdynamics of physics nor the mathematics of probability. Without holding other variables constant, the science could not isolate a study on very much. And yet, at the same time, the interrelationship of those isolated variables must be studied together to form a more holistic approach to the socalled science. Newton said 'law' in the 1800's or so. We see that there would be further need for study into why and hows of the actually mechanics of the gravity. So then, isn't 'law' a misnomer with respect to the relativity of the situations and reactivities involved in the viscosity of space and dark matter. By the way, Babylon had a story of a certain planet that used to be viewed in the sky which expoded one day; I think. The gravitation of our solar system is said, to this day, to have a 'placeholder' with respect to the gravitational forces speaking to the existence of another planet 'beyond' pluto which has not been found.
2016-05-21 23:07:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It's an instance of the first principle of relativity. But if it's a homework question, it could just be an instance of your teacher's misunderstanding of terminology. If the answer turns out to be "yes" I'll be happy to make a thorough rebuttal for you.
2006-10-22 17:07:43 · answer #3 · answered by lorentztrans 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Don't think so, I have vertigo, and closing my eyes while riding, makes worse.
2006-10-22 10:52:30 · answer #4 · answered by avery 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋