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Shouldn't there be twice as many whole numbers (even and odd)
as there are just the even whole numbers?

Count even numbers (2, 4, 6, 8 ... ) = infinity.
Count whole numbers (1, 2, 3, 4 ...) = infinity

Infinity = Infinity ..... or does it?

2006-10-22 10:06:15 · 12 answers · asked by ancientabner 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

12 answers

In upper division maths you learn about different degrees of infinity. How one infinity might be different or larger then another. So your sum of even numbers will be twice as large as the sum of your whole numbers if taken with absolute values.

Just think like 1 / (sum of all whole numbers). That doesnt neccesserly go towards infinity, it keeps going but it apporaches a number. (1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7 ... 1/x) where x -> infinity.
1/x is going to approach 0. so you will have a really good estimat e if you just added your first 20 numbers. You will learn the rest of this in calculus.

2006-10-22 10:11:42 · answer #1 · answered by Crellos 2 · 0 0

indeed there is no such thing as diffrent infinity, the patterns described above run infinite but the rate of infinity, or towards infinity can be different. Sat 1+1=2+1=3+1 but 2+4=6+2 is going +1 faster always in terms of rate as such count even numbers are reaching towards infinity faster

2006-10-22 10:17:31 · answer #2 · answered by Zidane 3 · 0 0

infinity is not a number. It is a concept only. Anyway, I want to answer this question by an question. "Which infinity?" 5/0 or 6/0 ? Which infinity did you mean? Although, concepts don't have any numeric values. they can't be equated.

2016-05-21 23:03:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Infinity is infinity. No numbers included. What you are referring to is etc. Infinity is just explained as endless. A destination to say. I guess it all depends how you view infinity. Like space for example. We can go as 2 or go alone as one. But the destination is still the same. Infinity.

2006-10-22 10:10:56 · answer #4 · answered by Mitchell B 4 · 0 0

The two sets aren't equal but have the same cardinality i.e. exists a bijection among the two sets

P= the set of even numbers
N=the sets of natural numbers

f: N -> P with f(n)=2n is a bijection

Not all infinite sets have the same cardinality.

e.g. R= the set of all real numbers has the cardinality of continuum which is greater than the countable cardinality

One possible definition of infinite set is:
a set which has the same cardinality of an its own proper subset.

Sorry for my english.

2006-10-22 10:24:09 · answer #5 · answered by bigivan_50 2 · 0 0

It can be shown that there are just as many even numbers as whole numbers: for every whole number n, there is an even number n * 2.

In other words, the cardinalities of the two sets are both aleph null.

2006-10-22 10:18:02 · answer #6 · answered by jacinablackbox 4 · 0 0

No. There are "orders of infinity" as first described by George Cantor in 1870.

Aloha

2006-10-22 10:09:50 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You are assuming that infinity means a figure you can reach. If that were true it would be finite, not infinite.

2006-10-22 10:16:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Infinitey is infinity.....by definition...

2006-10-22 10:13:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

infinity=infinity. its reflexive. or whatever its called. ;).

2006-10-22 10:14:09 · answer #10 · answered by halfbloodphantom 2 · 0 0

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