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Owners of an end of terrace house also 'own' a detached garage near to the property but have no supporting paperwork to prove this ownership.

The grandparents of the current owners paid for the garage in cash approximately 40 years ago and there was no paperwork for this transaction. The small plot of land that the garage is on belongs to the Coal Board (or whatever they are called today) on which there is no 'coal board' activity whatsoever. When the current owners bought the house (approx. 20 years ago) there was no mention of the garage in the paperwork but it was passed on through the family relationship.

The current owners wish to sell their house and would like to include the garage in the sale in order to increase the value of the property.

Where do they stand on ownership of the garage and how do they go about obtaining the necessary paperwork to prove this to facilitate the sale of the house? Are there any implications that we need to know about?

2006-10-22 07:27:10 · 4 answers · asked by Michael T 3 in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

This is in the UK btw.

2006-10-22 07:33:47 · update #1

As far as I know, because they inherited it they have not paid any type of property tax on it.

2006-10-22 07:35:49 · update #2

4 answers

In Common Law 'Adverse possession' is the term used to settle your problem. See the link below as it explains it for you, but you seem to be OK on this one.

2006-10-22 07:46:35 · answer #1 · answered by The Shadow 3 · 0 0

Who has been payin property taxes for this garage in the last 40 years?

2006-10-22 14:30:50 · answer #2 · answered by IC 4 · 0 0

You get a right to claim ownership after 10 years of usage see - a solicitor.

2006-10-22 14:35:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I agree with JH, you can file for a claim of seeking ownership if the person who did own it (and can prove it), doesn't show up after 10 years (can't be traced)

2006-10-22 14:39:26 · answer #4 · answered by sue l 4 · 0 0

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