2006-10-22 06:28:30 · 5 answers · asked by jake 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
Some of the laws are based on old spanish law.
2006-10-22 06:36:14 · answer #1 · answered by Catspaw 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you kidding? Texas ( formerly pronounced Tejas) was a part of mexico. As a matter of fact, California, Nevada, Utah, New Mexico, Arizona, and Texas was Mexican territory. Americans were introduced into Mexico because of pioneering and because of the overturn of Government in Mexico, Northern Mexico had little contol by the Southern part. So in other words, they weren't under strict rule as with the central and Southern parts of Mexico. I know you've heard of the Battle of the Alamo... some of the players were Daniel Boone, and other Texas rangers of the time. Santa Anna was the Mexican enemy that wanted to gain back control of the remaining parts of Texas. It's too long for me to type but eventually when we gained Texas there was a border dispute to decide where the border between america and mexico would be defined. And they fought over it and it finalized to the at the Rio Grande. Just Google it and believe me you will find a wealth of information. ANd that is why many Americans speak alot of spanish because early settlers were required to know spanish... Good luck.
2006-10-22 06:37:41 · answer #2 · answered by Dr. PHILlis (in training) 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Lots!
2006-10-22 06:33:54 · answer #3 · answered by john3kbs 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
a whole lot why did you ask that
2006-10-22 06:35:27 · answer #4 · answered by DUNE 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What about it ?
2006-10-22 06:35:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋