In order to answer this question we have to understand that total external force F and acceleration a can only exist together, i.e. a is non-zero if and only if F is non zero and vice versa.
So when we hit a ball (for example with a bat) there is an acceleration for as long as the bat touches the ball. During this period of time energy is transferred from the bat to the ball, and this accounts for the increase in the ball's kinetic energy. As soon as the ball leaves the bat then there's no force, so there's mo acceleration and no more energy transfer. From then on the ball moves at constant speed provided there are no other external forces acting on it. This is the case of a ball moving in empty space (i.e. "away" from gravitational fields). If we study the movement of the ball on the surface of the earth, then we have to take into account the ball's weight, which will eventually change its velocity and make the ball land.
In order to calculate the work done we can measure the velocity of the ball at the moment when it leaves the bat. If we also know its mass we can calculate its kinetic energy K=(1/2)*m*v^2 which (by applying the law of conservation of energy) equals the work done by the force F from the bat.
2006-10-22 07:37:54
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answer #1
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answered by fanis t 2
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No the ball will not accelerate. For that to happen there has to be a transfer of energy from the force applicator to the ball
energy is neither created or destroyed, therefore
if the force was strong enough to to create waves of energy by hitting the space around the ball, then the energized space would have an impact on the ball
2006-10-22 06:35:33
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answer #2
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answered by mørbidsшεεŧnεss 5
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Work is the product of force and distance. In an impulse, the force varies with time in a complex way that in general can't be determined.
But there is another way to determine the work. The work done by the brief force equals the kinetic energy (or change in energy if it previously was moving). This can be determined by measuring its speed and mass. KE=(1/2)*m*v^2. The energy the ball has after the impulse came from the whatever it was that hit it.
2006-10-22 08:10:59
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answer #3
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answered by sojsail 7
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when the ball is being hit (very short amount of time) it is accelerating, but once the object that hit it isnt touching it any more (and isnt exerting a force on it anymore) the ball stops accelerating, but is at a constant velocity. the ball increases its kenetic energy when the first object pushes it, but the kenetic energy stays the same once the other object isnt affecting it anymore.
u cant calculate work because the ball doesnt stop moving (in space there is almost no friction) but u would do force times displacement (distance traveled). to find force u need to do mass times acceleration, which i think would be 1, since u r not accelerating.
2006-10-22 06:08:53
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answer #4
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answered by bobathan229101 1
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I'm no physicist, but...
I don't think the ball would "continue to increase" it's velocity. If the ball was hit and began traveling at 100 mph, it would continue traveling at the same speed until acted upon by some outside force, so its velocity would remain constant.
2006-10-22 06:12:37
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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"the preliminary drive of the affect", for the duration of this affect is the one factor whilst the golfing ball could honestly speed up, and for that reason enjoy a drive. Instantly after this the unbalanced drive could be directed again closer to the earth (thankyou gravity), so the golfing ball could have got to extended very swiftly to an astronomical pace (the ball could crumble earlier than it reached this besides), that is referred to as "get away speed".
2016-09-01 00:52:25
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answer #6
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answered by ? 4
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