If the correlation coefficient is .78, the unexplained variation is 39.2%?

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If the correlation coefficient is .78, the unexplained variation is 39.2%?

2006-10-22 06:02:35 · 3 answers · asked by prettygirl135135 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help

3 answers

If the correlation coefficient "r" is .78, then the coeffieicent of determination "r^2" would be .78*.78 or .6084 . That means 60.84% of the change in the second variable is explained by the change in the first variable.

The unexplained variation is 1 - r^2, or 1 - .6084, which is .3916 . So yes, you are correct to say the unexplained variation is about 39.2%.

2006-10-25 13:15:34 · answer #1 · answered by dmb 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋

Was asking myself the same thing

2016-08-23 09:16:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋

Never thought about it too much

2016-08-08 17:44:43 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋