In the "war guilt clause" of the Versailles Treaty, what country was given responsibility for the loss and damage of World War I?'
A. Germany
B. France
C. The United States
D. Great Britain
2006-10-22 00:49:38 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
A. Germany
Germany got blamed for the whole thing, and was saddled with heavy penalties and reparations. The legacy of blame for WWI was part of what led to WWII.
2006-10-22 00:52:12 · answer #1 · answered by Bronwen 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Germany, under the terms of the Versailles Treaty, was to take complete responsibility for World War I. As a result, that nation was expected to pay very heavy reparations to the nations who fought them--the harshness of this treaty was one of the reasons for the rise of Hitler and, ultimately, World War II, so the answer is A.
2006-10-22 07:54:27 · answer #2 · answered by Chrispy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A. However, we always forget it was AUSTRIA-HUNGARY that really started the war. Germany was only helping its ally. Moreover, Austria-Hungary attacked Serbia because Franz Ferdinand was assassinated by some Serbian who looked like Michael Jackson.
2006-10-22 10:26:51 · answer #3 · answered by Doodler 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A. GERMANY (Versailles treaty, article 231)
2006-10-22 07:58:49 · answer #4 · answered by jmk 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A. Germany. They were also held responsible for WW2.
2006-10-22 08:14:51 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A
2006-10-22 11:56:07 · answer #6 · answered by † Ville & Bam♥ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A
2006-10-22 11:37:37 · answer #7 · answered by Kevin F 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A
2006-10-22 10:08:16 · answer #8 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A
2006-10-22 07:58:05 · answer #9 · answered by ArgumentativeButNotInsulting 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A
2006-10-22 07:50:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋