They can, but it's more commonly seen in men. Colorblindness is associated with the X chromosome. Since women have two X chromosomes, both of them have to have the colorblind trait for a woman to be colorblind. It's more common in men because they only have one X chromosome, so if it has the trait for colorblindness, then the male will be colorblind. Women can be "carriers" if one of their X chromosomes have the trait, but they won't show signs of colorblindness.
2006-10-21 19:09:09
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answer #1
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answered by GeauxLSU 2
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Not as often as men can be, but, yes they can. My sister is colorblind (which makes me wonder why she has coloring books at all) and her color handicap is reds and greens. I think that the ratio of colorblindness between men and women is something like for every 1000 men, 1 to 3 women are colorblind, but don't quote me on that, I think I'm off a bit.
2006-10-21 19:27:14
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answer #2
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answered by Deus Maxwell 3
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yes, but it is rare. usually in a given population less then 1% of woman have some level of colorblindness, were it can be as high as 10% of males who have some level of colorblindness.
there is speculation that is an evolutionary adaptation.
males as hunters needed the ability to detect movement over color, as gatherers women needed the ability to detect the subtleties in plant or food colors.
2006-10-21 19:53:09
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answer #3
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answered by denlaf 1
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Yes, however, the condition is extremely rare in females. Furthermore, color "blindness" almost never occurs in any human being. The correct term is color deficient, as the total absence of color receptor cones in all three of the primary colors is nearly impossible from a genetics standpoint. Virtually all of us have millions of cones. Those who have a lesser number of one, two or all three of the colors, see colors differently and are dubbed color "blind".
The reason that the condition so favors males is that it is a generation-skipping, sex-linked trait, meaning that it is carried, generation to generation, by females, and exhibited in the male offspring of the carrier. For example, I am a color deficient male. My mother's father was color deficient. Since I have only sons, there will be no female in my lineage to pass the gene to her potential offspring. The condition will disappear from my direct bloodline. However, recurrence by way of mutation or recessive pairing is common with this gene, giving rise to new lines of the condition. Hence, the rather high continuing incidence of color deficiency in approximately 8% of the male population.
Incidentally, when I was in college I had a sudden epiphany while shopping in the produce isle of a market.......WOW, THAT'S WHY THEY CALL IT AN ORANGE!!!
2006-10-21 19:31:50
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answer #4
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answered by chipsteru3 1
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Medically actually colorblind then yes... why not?
I dont really understand the nature of your question in any other context.
2006-10-21 19:00:54
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answer #5
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answered by i'm just a girl 2
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Uuum, I believe so. I can't think of any reason why colorblindness would be sexist. But I surely don't know everything.
2006-10-21 18:59:00
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answer #6
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answered by calibornredneck 1
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Color blindness has nothing to do with gender. A females eyes work exactly the same as a males. The difference is how the brain processes what the eyes detect.
2006-10-21 19:20:38
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes it is possible
but theres more of a chance that males get it than women
but it is possible
2006-10-22 05:26:40
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answer #8
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answered by † Ville & Bam♥ 2
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yes my mum is and also my tafe teachers wife was colour blind.sorry that sounds random but im a hairdresser so we talk about this kind of thing!
2006-10-22 00:09:20
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answer #9
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answered by paddysmum 2
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I remember once hearing that one in one million women are color blind. I don't know if it's true or not though.
2006-10-21 18:59:43
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answer #10
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answered by annie 2
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