2006-10-21 16:47:20 · 33 answers · asked by gabodegreit 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
The words are different but the meaning is the same.
It means no premeditated murder.
2006-10-21 17:07:07 · answer #1 · answered by pj_gal 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually the way the 10 commandments were written with the finger of God, which Moses brought down from the mountain was that God said...thou shalt not murder. He understood that men had to go to war and kill the enemy.
Murder is different in that it is not done to protect and defend, but as a hateful, premeditated act against persons who have either wronged that individual in some way, or that the person committing the murder hated that individual for some reason. Law Enforcement mixes these two up and usually uses both; but as far as the 10 commandments, it is 'thou shalt not murder.'
2006-10-21 17:01:25 · answer #2 · answered by chole_24 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Thou shall not murder is the correct meaning of the Commandment.
2006-10-21 17:14:53 · answer #3 · answered by norcalnative@sbcglobal.net 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Taken strictly within the context of the Bible, it is first important to understand that ancient manuscripts are the Bible's source and centuries of translation into modern tongues have altered meanings. While the King James bible and subsequent modernizations are, in general, remarkably accurate, there is no doubt that some words have lost their original meaning.
The correct translation of the Hebrew word used in the Ten Commandments, and as quoted in the question, would be "murder". Certainly, anyone who has read the Old Testament recognizes that Yahweh had no problem with "killing", particularly when it was at His direct command. Untold millions were righteously slain under His divine guidance, according to scripture. "Murder", on the other hand, is an individual act, carried out for a selfish purpose. At its core, it seeks to become God itself, deciding life and death.
2006-10-21 16:59:55 · answer #4 · answered by BamaJim 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Thou shall not murder is the correct sentence. Thou shall not kill is a mere translation issue.
2006-10-21 16:54:54 · answer #5 · answered by Vie 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Simple. The stricture is against wrongful killing. The Bible is fullof justifiable homicide. Shoot, some of the greatest heroes of the old testament were right killing machines. Take old Samson as a ferinstance.
In neither case is this a correct moral stance, but it was probably necessary when they were issuing moral strictures to a bunch of goat herders.
In the civilized world, there are folk that need killing, and that is a fact recognized in the legal structures of many states in the US. Sometimes, killing is good for society.
Mostly it isn't.
In no case does a moral code designed to deal with a nomadic population adequately translate to an urban society.
2006-10-21 16:57:31 · answer #6 · answered by Grendle 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Thou shall not murder. This is also the answer to questions about if it's a Christian thing to go to war. If it's not murder, then it is not sin in God's eyes. Not even Nazis. The Bible teaches to follow whomever He selects as leaders or kings of this world. This, unfortunately, includes Hitler.
2006-10-21 16:55:25 · answer #7 · answered by Forget My Name. 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think both are correct but if I have to choose just one it's the first one"thou shall not kill"
2006-10-21 16:50:41 · answer #8 · answered by kasia 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The King James translators incorrectly translated the Hebrew word for murder as kill. It should have always been "thou shalt not murder".
2006-10-21 16:50:16 · answer #9 · answered by Robert L 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I think the correct word is Kill. Kill has been in the OE (old european) language longer than Murder. I believe that most european languages have only word to denote murder and kill.
Bible also tells us not to kill animals. Jesus was a vegetarian as most people prior to and at that time.
2006-10-21 17:11:36 · answer #10 · answered by serbianbeauty 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I always felt the NT should still recognize Oral and written law. If you look up Talmud on murder or killing is prob. the most just on the matter.
Don't quote me but if I recall it states that only in a situation where deadly force is needed in regards to your life be taken than it is acceptable.
I have not studied the Talmud so I could be wrong but I think most Jewish law is very just example with war what means most be taken prior including warning your enemy etc etc.
Talmud expert please ring in. Or Jewish Law expert I should say.
2006-10-21 16:59:26 · answer #11 · answered by Labatt113 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋