When I was younger, I played in a baseball game where there was this situation:
Runner on third, standing 1-2 feet in foul territory.
A line-drive foul ball hit the player on 3rd, in foul territory.
Runner was called out.
Is this an obscure baseball rule? Or is it more likely that it was considered interference by the runner?
Thanks!
2006-10-21 16:08:20 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
I think that the ump made the wrong call because if the runner gets hit by the ball in foul territory it doesn't count as an out. If the person was standing in fair territory then they would be out but clearly they were in foul territory as you said.
2006-10-21 16:13:45 · answer #1 · answered by Jack NYY #1 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I think the umpire made a bad call on this one. I'm pretty sure if the runner is in foul territory and the ball hits him it's just a foul ball. If the runner is in fair territory he's out.
2006-10-21 23:24:34 · answer #2 · answered by adogg_9 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the runner was hit by the batted ball in fair territory or standing on the base the runner should be called out. If the runner is in foul territory, they should be safe (though hurting).
2006-10-22 07:55:58 · answer #3 · answered by jpbofohio 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It should have been a foul ball, the umps got it wrong.
2006-10-21 23:16:05 · answer #4 · answered by Ricky Lee 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Umps got it wrong... It is a dead ball since it is foul... Batter gets a strike.
2006-10-22 18:43:08 · answer #5 · answered by Chaga 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The umpsie was wrong.
2006-10-22 02:40:37 · answer #6 · answered by smitty 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋