what about when in germany the industrialists backed hitler to get cowed cheap labour by killing off 100,000 of the vocal opposition to hitler?
was that legal? it was
was it theft of billions or trillions? it was
what about in america, where the govt, taken over by industrialists, makes taxing rob the ppl [working middle upper classes] of money/power for the superwealthy/superoverpowerful? 'the superrich are not only breaking the laws, they are making the laws'
what about whenever certain thefts are legal because the nation does not know they ought to be illegal?
eg, profits above total input by the company? if the company puts $x [including all owners' contributions] into the products, & charges $x+y, that is BY DEFINITION fair-exchange-no-robbery [$x for $x] plus a robbery [= $y] - it is the same morally as stealing $y - just a trick to conceal the robbery in a sale - if the incomings are $x+y, & the outgoings for input are $x, $y HAS TO be theft
yes? or no?
2006-10-21
09:16:53
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Economics