English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

what about when in germany the industrialists backed hitler to get cowed cheap labour by killing off 100,000 of the vocal opposition to hitler?

was that legal? it was

was it theft of billions or trillions? it was

what about in america, where the govt, taken over by industrialists, makes taxing rob the ppl [working middle upper classes] of money/power for the superwealthy/superoverpowerful? 'the superrich are not only breaking the laws, they are making the laws'

what about whenever certain thefts are legal because the nation does not know they ought to be illegal?

eg, profits above total input by the company? if the company puts $x [including all owners' contributions] into the products, & charges $x+y, that is BY DEFINITION fair-exchange-no-robbery [$x for $x] plus a robbery [= $y] - it is the same morally as stealing $y - just a trick to conceal the robbery in a sale - if the incomings are $x+y, & the outgoings for input are $x, $y HAS TO be theft

yes? or no?

2006-10-21 09:16:53 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Economics

4 answers

Yes. Boy you make it tough to be an honest crook. lol

But as laws have been made by the rich, white collar crime has always been getting off easier than blue collar crime. i.e. If you go rob a bank without a gun you get 10 times the jail sentence than if their Accountant robs the bank through embezzlement. I would think the accountant's crime is greater as he has broke a lot more trust issues.

Average bank rober gets 7 years for an average of $6,000 robery.

Average embezzler gets 10 months for a lot more cash

2006-10-21 10:30:34 · answer #1 · answered by JuanB 7 · 0 0

Legal theft is indeed an oxymoron. To extend your example with industrialists backing Hitler, how many of them were indicted in Nuremberg after the war was over? Two. Gustav Krupp was medically unfit to stand trial, so the only one to actually have been tried was Hjalmar Schacht, who was actually acquitted...

2006-10-21 12:47:38 · answer #2 · answered by NC 7 · 0 0

No it isn't. Just because sometnig is legal doesn't make it right. Just because it's illegal doesn't make it (morally) wrong. There are plenty of unjust laws and unjust judges everywhere. Fewer than in Gildas's day, but still too many.

2006-10-24 01:45:43 · answer #3 · answered by MBK 7 · 0 0

yes

2006-10-21 11:22:12 · answer #4 · answered by ISEL 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers