In "Moby Dick", the Pequod meets the Rachel, another whaling vessel whose Captain has lost his sons in the pursuit of whales. I understand that Rachel had to wait years to have children, and that in some readings of the Bible she weeps for "her children", meaning her descendants.
But what does Melville mean when he says "she was Rachel weeping for her children, because they were not."
Because they were not weeping? Because they were not her children? Because they were not? [philosophically?]
Its a beautiful reference, but I'm not sure what it means...
2006-10-21 06:51:37 · 4 answers · asked by Sam Y 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
she was weeping for children she had never bore.
she was distressed with the thought of being barren---she wanted children so much for joseph.
2006-10-21 07:36:11 · answer #1 · answered by cork 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Biblical Allusions In Moby Dick
2016-11-04 21:07:12 · answer #2 · answered by aymond 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"In Rama was there a voice heard, lamentation, and weeping, and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children, and would not be comforted, because they were no more."
Matthew 2:18
Matthew is quoting the words of the prophet Jeremiah to describe the grief of the mothers of the children slain by Herod.
Melville uses the reference to describe the mourning of the father and the ship for the lost sons.
2006-10-21 07:19:05 · answer #3 · answered by kidd 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
when it says they were not, it means literally they were not there. dead or not born, not available to her
2006-10-21 06:53:23 · answer #4 · answered by EV 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋