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2006-10-21 04:54:33 · 28 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Royalty

28 answers

Because the Queen hasn't died. When she does, Prince Charles will become the king.

2006-10-21 04:57:13 · answer #1 · answered by Tom Jr 4 · 3 0

There is no king of England because when the last king, George VI, died, he had no sons so the succession passed to his daughter, who became Queen Elizabeth. When she married, her husband was given the title Prince (actually, Prince Consort) because if they named him King, it would give him a higher rank than her, which would be a silly situation.
When Queen Elizabeth dies, she will be succeeded by her oldest son, Prince Charles, who will become King. What name he will choose is up to him, as kings usually choose a different name than the one they have been known as. For example, King George was known in the family as Bertie (his given name was Albert) but he chose George when he became king. So Charles will become King something-or-other and Camilla will become Queen Camilla, because a Queen ranks lower than a king so she isn't being given the status of a monarch.
Does that clear it up?

2006-10-22 01:36:48 · answer #2 · answered by old lady 7 · 0 0

This question was answered fully quite recently under a question about consorts. There is no king of England because the Queen was next in line to the throne and she is a woman, therefore she is not a king. She is married to Prince Philip, who is her husband, not her king. If he had the title of King, it would imply that he was her equal in status, which he is not. He serves her as a subject, although he has a great deal of influence. In the 16th century they had a hard time adjusting to the idea of women rulers at all, and it was normal in that time for power and property to be transmitted through female bloodlines, hence when there were women rulers in England, there was fierce competition to marry them so as to gain power. This caused enormous resentment, one example being Queen Elizabeth I and her "favourite", Robert Dudley, Earl of Leicester. They were close, possibly loved each other, and certainly she was bitterly jealous of his relationships with other women, but she could never marry him as he and his friends would have regarded him as de facto king of England. Widespread opposition to that could have toppled her from her throne and as she put it "I will have one mistress in this land, but no master."

2006-10-22 18:53:24 · answer #3 · answered by Specsy 4 · 0 0

Because the father of the Queen, King George just had two daughters, Elizabeth the Queen and Princess Margaret, no men.

2006-10-21 19:42:56 · answer #4 · answered by pelancha 6 · 1 0

The present queen, Queen Elizabeth is the queen because her father was the reining king when he died. There was no male heir so she became queen. Her husband, Prince Phillip, was of Greek descent and so not in the British bloodline. Upon his marriage to her his title became "Prince Consort" which means husband of the reigning monarch. I there had been a male heir who became king, his wife would have been called Queen, although she would not be the 'reigning' queen. Only the one who is direct heir to the throne becomes the reigning king or queen.

2006-10-22 14:10:32 · answer #5 · answered by rosemary w 3 · 0 0

Because King George VI, the late King of England, did not have any sons. So, when he died, his eldest daughter became Queen Regnant (i.e., Reigning Queen).

Queens Regnant of England (and Scotland):

Mary I, Queen of Scots (reigned December 14, 1542 – July 24, 1567). She became queen when she was six days old, was crowned at age 5, and promptly engaged to the Dauphin of France - the future Francis II.

Lady Jane Grey (reigned July 10 – July 19, 1553) – Her cousin Edward VI of England appointed her successor by removing his older half-sisters Mary and Elizabeth from the order of succession as illegitimates. This decision had not been approved by Parliament and was open to questions of its legality. Mary was the heir according to the will of their father Henry VIII of England and was elevated to the throne through revolt. Nevertheless, Jane is sometimes considered England's first queen regnant. She is called "The Nine Days Queen."

Mary I of England (reigned July 19, 1553 – November 17, 1558). Elevated to the throne in accordance with Henry VIII's will. Reckoned the first or second queen regnant and subsequent years of her reign as though Jane had never been Queen.

Elizabeth I of England (term November 17, 1558 – March 24, 1603). The other sister Edward VI attempted to remove from the order of succession. Succeeded her childless older half-sister. Also died childless.

Mary II of England/Mary II, Queen of Scots (reigned February 13/April 11, 1689 – December 28, 1694). Co-reigned with her husband William III; they were given the throne by Parliament after the same deposed James II during the so-called Glorious Revolution of 1688.

Anne, Queen of England, Scotland and Ireland; later, Queen of Great Britain and Queen of Ireland (reigned March 8, 1702 – August 1, 1714).

Victoria of the United Kingdom (reigned June 20, 1837 – January 22, 1901).

Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom (reigned February 6, 1952 – present).

2006-10-21 13:26:58 · answer #6 · answered by kent chatham 5 · 4 0

We did away with duel monarchies centuries ago. When there used to be a king and queen, usually it was the king who was the "true" ruler, with "queen" being only a title with minimal responsibility.

Afterwards, when people like Queen Mary, Victoria, and Elizabeth became true monarchs, eliminating the gender bias, it didn't become necesesary to have both a king and queen.

Prince Phillip, our current queen's husband, is the closest thing we have to a king, even though he's a complete prat. He's not "our" prince, but one of another country - not our queen's son.

2006-10-21 11:59:43 · answer #7 · answered by davidbrookesuk 3 · 2 2

Prince Philip(Elizabeth II's husband) is alive and well to my knowledge, if i am not mistaken i believe theirs was an arranged marriage, as was Charles and Diana's. as per the arrangement Phillip would not get the title of King. However upon Elizabeth II's death the throne would either go to Charles or William, depending on how old William is at the time of her death.

I think I read where that she reset the line of ascension when Charles and Di divorced to punish him for cheating on his wife. If William is older than 25 at the time of her death he would become King of England at that time. If she died before that, Charles would get the rights and privilages, but not the title of King, and William would become King on his 25th B-day.

Of course Harry would only become King in the event of William's Death prior to any of William children being of age if I recall.

2006-10-21 20:24:18 · answer #8 · answered by janssen411 6 · 0 2

The last king had only 2 daughters, and there was no son to become king, opon his death. So, his oldest daughter became queen.

2006-10-21 11:57:36 · answer #9 · answered by Shossi 6 · 4 0

because queen elizabeth was the eldest daughter of the last king, and since there's no son, she become the queen, and unless she named her husband the king, there isn't one

2006-10-21 18:51:59 · answer #10 · answered by no one 2 · 1 0

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