tan y = sin y / cos y
when y is small, sin y is also very small, but cos y is very big (very close to one)
When you divide small number by 1 you get very small number (but I'm not sure how close that number will be to y).
2006-10-21 02:36:24
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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There are two methods that i know but there is many more methods! You can replace the variable to y if you want but i like x better! and the assumption is x is small.
Method 1: Using the knowledge that sin x= x and cos x= 1-0.5 x^2
we use tan x= sin x/ cos x = x/ (1-0.5 x^2) = x(1-0.5 x^2)^(-1) = x(1+ 0.5x^2+ ... ...) = x + 0.5 x^3 +... ... =x as higher powers of x are negligible!
Method 2: using Maclaurin's expansion!
y= tan x
y'= (sec x)^2
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.(i think you should be able to work it out yourself right?)
then sub x=0, y= 0
y'= 1
y''=...
...(but powers higher than one can be neglected)
so tan x = x
From the formula list, the Maclaurin expansion of tan(x) is
1 3 2 5 17 7 62 9 10
tan(x) = x + --- x + --- x + ---- x + ----- x + O(x )
3 15 315 2835
so actually you can deduce from formula list too if you want!
opss the number is a little out of place but the first number is for the fraction and the second is for the power of x for the second fraction and so on
YAY!!
2006-10-21 09:45:54
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answer #2
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answered by Big bird 1
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One way to prove or more correctly to demonstrate is to use Taylor's theorem. Do a series expansion for tan y.
Taking the limit of the series as y --> 0 will give you tan y ~ y.
The expansion will be:
tan y = y + 2y^3/3! + 16y^5/5! + 272y^7/7! + ....
2006-10-21 10:25:13
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answer #3
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answered by Dr. J. 6
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Actually as stated this is not true. It is true for 0 (tan(0) = 0), and it is true that lim y->0 tany/y = 1. I believe it is this last one that you want to prove.
tany/y = siny/(ycosy)
lim y->0 siny/(ycosy) = (lim siny/y)*(lim 1/cosy)
The right term is easy, since 1/cosy is continuous and defined at y = 0 it is just 1.
For the left there are a few ways to evaluate lim siny/y. One is if you already know this is 1.
Another is L'Hospital rule, taking the derivative of top and bottom and evaluating at 0 (cosy/1)
2006-10-21 09:55:22
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answer #4
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answered by sofarsogood 5
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tan y=y
sin y =y
where, y is in radians not degrees
y is so small
this is proved numerically, because the raltionship between y, and tan y, or sin y or cos y are numerical realtionships. these values were found by accurate measuring to correlate betwwn the angles and lengths.
2006-10-21 09:34:37
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answer #5
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answered by mozakkera 2
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as y tends to zero the opposite side will tend to zero so tany will tend to zero.so the difference between y and tany will be negligible.so we can say tany=y
2006-10-21 09:48:05
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answer #6
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answered by raj 7
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i dont get it but i go to this site all the time to help me www.studybuddy.com good luck
2006-10-21 09:31:58
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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