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3 answers

That's a very interesting and very complex question. It's very hard to know. However, it does seem highly likely, at least for the people of Northern India.

The first problem is that migration of peoples is often associated with spread of the languages.

Arabic (as well as Hebrew) are semitic languages and are linguistically completely unrelated to Indian languages.

However, Northern Indian languages (those derived from Sanksrit - such as Hindi, Marathi, Gujarati, Bengali etc) are all Indo-Aryan languages and are part of the Indo-European language family.

One of the earliest known Indo-European languages is Hittite - which was spoken in Ancient Egyptian times in the region of Anatolia - which is now in Turkey. Current scientific evidence suggests that proto-Indo-European originated from that area.

Obviously Semitic languages ALSO hail from the middle-east. Therefore it is likely that in the (very distant) past, but certainly within the history of civilisation, the two groups of people

However, as you can imagine the issue is a very complex one due to admixture of different populations.

From the point of view of South India the answer is likely to be no. The South Indian languages (Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam) are all Dravidian languages. Their root origin is not known but many hypothesise that they are offshoots of the Indus Valley civilisation rather than from the middle east. Even if they aren't, there is certainly no evidence at all that South Indian peoples have any genetic connection to the middle east.

Obviously, at a very basic level all humans are believed to share a common ancestor from some where in East-central Africa (the out-of-Africa hypothesis which is currently the predominant theory on human spread in anthropology). Long answer - but hopefully that adds some insight.

2006-10-21 01:12:47 · answer #1 · answered by the last ninja 6 · 1 0

No, the Indians have a history going back thousands of years, but Arabs were simple tribal people contained on the Arabian Peninsula until the rise of Mohammad about 1500 hundred years ago. But there is a connection between Iranian and Indian people, in that Aryan peoples migrated to both places thousands of years ago.

2006-10-21 00:17:14 · answer #2 · answered by ifyousaysooooooooooo 2 · 0 0

I donk know about the arabs but we Indians are a mixture of races Proto Australoids,Paleo Mediterraneans,Caucasoids,Negroids and Mongoloids

2006-10-21 00:19:31 · answer #3 · answered by The Slytherin Princess 1 · 0 0

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