2006-10-20 15:54:43 · 13 answers · asked by Hasbro 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
Only if the damage was intentionally hidden and not disclosed to the buyer upon inspection and closing. Other than that the buyer has no real recourse unless the repairs are substantial enough that they are willing to attempt to prove that you had knowledge of the damages. I would have my realtor explain that you had no knowledge of any damages and in the future to contact the realtor with any questions.
2006-10-20 16:07:21 · answer #1 · answered by gjjr2004 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You would be responsible for repairs if the repairs were to be made as part of the contract. The only other issue that I can think of would be if you knew of the defect and failed to disclose the decfect on your disclosure statement. The nw owner though would have to prove that you knew the defect existed though. Good luck
2006-10-20 17:27:38 · answer #2 · answered by mikeyc06010 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, unless there were hiding place like wall paper cover the mess.Last year, in Florida one lady won the case because the GMCA company sold the house to her,after moving,she find out about the termite under the wall paper.
2006-10-20 16:11:56 · answer #3 · answered by colorado 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i assume you sold the home as is then you are not responsible. unless you signed something saying you were. some states have a lemon law for homes and if the buyer can prove you knew the problem ...but that up to the courts i would say your in the clear
2006-10-20 16:10:40 · answer #4 · answered by steamroller98439 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You could be held responsible if there were some fundamental (eg structural) problems you failed to disclose to prospective buyer.
Work with your legal counsel if demands are being made.
2006-10-20 16:04:33 · answer #5 · answered by Smilin' Fred 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes you are. unless you gave a disclosure statement to the Realtor
2006-10-20 16:03:08 · answer #6 · answered by LARCO 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there was a defect that wasn't disclosed to the buyer, yes.
2006-10-20 16:16:58 · answer #7 · answered by BoomChikkaBoom 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Only if it is clearly stated in your sales contract.
2006-10-20 16:02:58 · answer #8 · answered by Bill P 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not, unless you signed something that states otherwise.
2006-10-20 15:56:40 · answer #9 · answered by Ladybug 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it was in your sales contract, then yes. Otherwise, why would you be?
2006-10-20 16:02:14 · answer #10 · answered by Elaura 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋