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where supposedly an excess of definitions favorable to the commision of delinquent conduct and the frequency and intensity of these definitions is greatest; and how do you explain the fact that some middle and upper class youht do engage in delinquency, yet they come from neighboorhoods where definitions unfavorable to committing delinquency are highest?


i have no idea how to answer this question and it has to deal with the deifferential association theory. IF someone can answer this, it would be great.

2006-10-20 14:34:41 · 5 answers · asked by CC 2 in Social Science Sociology

5 answers

First of all, these are broad sweeping generalizations made by someone (I'm guessing a teacher from a poor neighborhood) that have little basis in fact.

The truth of the matter is that all children, be they lower class, middle class (which btw, middle class doesn't exist anymore, be sure to let your teacher know that.) and upper class suffer from Juvenile Delinquincy.

The majority of violent crimes committed are done so by Males aged 18 to 25. Roughly 50% of those crimes committed are done so by Black Males, and nearly 90% of those black males live in areas that are classified as "poor" based on the income levels for a family of four being below something like $14,500.00 a year and require some sort of government assistance such as Medicare/Welfare/Food Stamps.

Non Violent Crimes committed have a much wider age range depending upon the type of crime. B&E, Shoplifting, etc. You would do well to look up the national statistics.

A much more accurate (and less biased viewpoint. ((Bad Teacher Alert))) Would be show the direct correlation between crimes committed by teens and the number of hours they are left alone per day by their working class parents. My guess is that you will find a large number of Teens who'se parents have very little involvement in their teens lives due to work and other activities suffer from the highest number of crimes committed.

2006-10-20 14:47:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That's quite a nebulous question. What you're asking is, on the one hand, "Why don't most poor kids misbehave?" and on the other, "Why do some rich kids misbehave?" Just because the conditions are ideal for something to happen, doesn't mean it's going to happen. Which is probably (in this case) a good thing.

2006-10-20 21:57:40 · answer #2 · answered by Dr Know It All 5 · 0 0

I think it could be because #1 lower income parents want more for their kids so they put down tougher rules and follow through with it. #2 could be because the parents are actually around more for their children. since they usually work 8 hour days they are home with their children during the evening hours and that is when the get to eat dinner and play outside with their kids. they have more quality time with the children.
#3 the children themselves see the parents struggling and they try harder to do better in life.

I believe that good parent involvement is the key to good young adults.

2006-10-20 21:49:30 · answer #3 · answered by KAREN A 4 · 0 0

Most people who are criminals have some kind of mental disorder. It doesn't matter how rich or poor you are.

2006-10-20 21:42:56 · answer #4 · answered by xox_bass_player_xox 6 · 0 0

You cannot generalise...

2006-10-20 21:36:20 · answer #5 · answered by zap 5 · 0 0

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