2006-10-20 11:29:42 · 10 answers · asked by Ylia 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Still waters run deep.
2006-10-20 13:05:26 · answer #1 · answered by megalomaniac 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well i think that langauge is an over represented form used to help explain and communicate. While it has served our services admirably for centurys, it does have one flaw. Being that words can only express one singular idea, when in fact the results of understanding and feelings are not taken into account. How can you explain to be your love of something in mere words? To understand of course we must feel we have emotions so vivid and dirvese that to write them down and let another interpert them, would require that person to change the entire meanings of the words. So while a person who doesn't fully express himself in a articulate manner might be shallow. He may be the victim of being unable to express himself in these mere words. As there are somethings words cannot imagine to express.
2006-10-20 13:21:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
laconic by definition is to be concise. That just means you know enough about your topic to boil it down to very few words. As you can see, I'm horrible at it. =)
2006-10-20 11:38:35 · answer #3 · answered by billyidolrules 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No being laconic is being of few words. Being concise and on it.
2006-10-20 11:39:47 · answer #4 · answered by banananna 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is the result of being concise.
2006-10-20 11:38:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Verbiage is shallow.
2006-10-20 17:25:44 · answer #6 · answered by -.- 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-10-20 11:36:54 · answer #7 · answered by MK6 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nonsense.
2006-10-20 11:36:48 · answer #8 · answered by interested_party 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2006-10-20 11:36:47 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no.
2006-10-20 16:04:40 · answer #10 · answered by Sophist 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋