Nietzche as an irrationalist?

Question

It has sometimes been thought that science provides a specifically "rational" mode of acess to the world, and art a specifically "irrational" mode.

In what sense is this true (or not true) for Nietzche?

Is it right to describe Nietzche as an "irrationalist"?

If so, why? IF not, why not?

Answer 1

Art provides an aesthetic mode. It's not a polar opposite to reason -- it's a different game altogether. Kant recognized the difference in judgments, Nietzsche just runs with it. He claims that the body is prior to the mind. The mind, with whatever rational faculties we want to postulate, serves the body-- and it is the realm of taste that is thus prior to reason. But that doesn't mean reason doesn't have its place, its use for us-- it's just been demoted from the essence of man that Aristotle assigned.

Answer 2

Nietzsche should probably not be referred to as an irrationalist, as more accurate description of his mode of philosophy is that of a anti-systematizer. It was not that he was irrational in his philosophy, even though it may seem that way, Nietzsche was in fact trying to brake away from philosophical schools of thought that did not completely represent all possible perspectives of that are in life, specifically art. Art is just one of these perspectives that could not be contained in the philosophical systems of Hegel, Kant, Fichte etc.

Answer 3

It true only in the fact that Nietzsche constrained art to set forms. He was highly rational, especially in the fact that he did not shrink from logical conclusions regardless how repugnant he may have found them.

Answer 4

Read his work at wikepedia. Its fun, trust me.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nietzche

Answer 5

What assignment is this for? Sounds fun, but you earn your own grade.