I personally only ever heard of the one with "IS", but a friend got her essay marked down and was told of "HAS" to be correct. Can anyone tell me which is? Or is it both? I'd also really appreciate explanations as to how this works grammatically.
2006-10-20 04:10:21 · 11 answers · asked by vforvampyr 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Hmm - I'm a high-school teacher myself, and I can say definitively that "is" would be the correct terminology. "Has" in this usage implies past-tense. Maybe this teacher needs a refresher course in basic grammatical structure.
2006-10-20 04:47:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I believe both are correct, although 'is' is more commonly heard. If you rephrase this sentence, it would be 'The best has not yet come' not 'The best is not yet come'. Therefore, the above arguments that it must be 'is' to complement the use of yet do not hold true. If 'has' is past tense, 'has not' would be future tense.
I did a few grammar check programs to confirm my assumptions and all came back that either use is okay. My gut tells me that 'is' is accepted due to common usage over an extended time period, whereas 'has' is proper English. Similar to when people accept the use of the word irregardless when no such word actually exists. Anyway, personally I would contest it but she should bring some examples of the use of this phrase with 'is' in known sources and/or books.
2006-10-20 22:18:07 · answer #2 · answered by nativeAZ 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
"The best IS yet to come" is correct. I strongly suspect that the reason is that English is a germanic language.
In English, we say for example "I have eaten a sandwich" or "I have driven all over town today." This is called the past participle. In German and Old English, you often use "to be" instead of "to have" in forming this past participle when you're referring to verbs involving motion. For example, you'd say "I have eaten a sandwich," but you'd say "I AM driven all over town today." Biblical language often uses this kind of construction. Take this snippet from the book of John: "I am come that they might have life."
So, to sum up, the phrase "the best is yet to come" is a fossilized bit of language that reveals the Germanic origins of English. "The best has yet to come" could be gramatically correct given how English is currently spoken, but it sounds strange because people have been using "is" for so long!
2006-10-22 10:15:41 · answer #3 · answered by blalskdja 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good grief! Even if the teacher were correct (and I don't think so), "The best is yet to come" is such a common tagline, that it is the height of nit-picking to mark down for it. Shame on that instructor!
2006-10-20 08:38:54 · answer #4 · answered by pessimoptimist 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I believe that "The best IS yet to come" is correct because you need a future tense verb to agree with the word "yet"
2006-10-20 04:29:45 · answer #5 · answered by botr370 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
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both are correct. but both have different meanings. Concerned person may mean a person who is concerned about something. person concerned may mean person involved
2016-04-05 00:57:56 · answer #6 · answered by Brenda 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both are gramatically acceptable. "The best is yet to come" is obviously correct, but "the best has yet to come" is more subtley correct. Try the usage in another sentence such as, "He has yet to pay his bills." That sounds correct, does it not? Incorporate that into your controversial statement, "the best has yet to come", and you see that though it doesn't sound correct, it is indeed correct usage.
2006-10-20 04:20:51 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
"Has" doesn't make sense to me. Grammatically it should be "is". I think "has" comes from people mishearing what was spoken. I'd say the teacher was wrong.
2006-10-20 04:16:51 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
it has to be "IS." I don't know what kind of teacher your friend has, but "has" is past tense, whereas "yet to come" is speaking of the future. It just doesn't make sense to use "has" in this case.
2006-10-20 04:20:29 · answer #9 · answered by smartee 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
afaik "is" is correct.
But then I suppose it depends on what the meaning of the word "is" is.
2006-10-20 09:01:04 · answer #10 · answered by kingdom_of_gold 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋