2006-10-19 17:58:21 · 10 answers · asked by Opposite D 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
It should be correct, but how can one tell the sameness when there's no [even only one] sameness thing in this universe?
2006-10-19 21:51:31 · answer #1 · answered by Joxie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sameness sounds kinda weak to me. I'm the same as you, but there are differences. If there were no differences, we would be more than the same, we'd be disuniquificant.
2006-10-20 01:09:13 · answer #2 · answered by marsminute 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there is no difference its the same difference.
2006-10-20 01:08:12 · answer #3 · answered by old_brain 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Definitely.
2006-10-20 01:47:19 · answer #4 · answered by Vie 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes but the definition and criteria of 'sameness' is on case-to-case and person-to-person basis(here person indicates the evaluating person/s) !
2006-10-20 01:03:08 · answer #5 · answered by Spiritualseeker 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You keep asking essentially the same question, only tweaked slightly so that the answers change.
2006-10-20 01:01:25 · answer #6 · answered by Rat 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2006-10-20 01:00:41 · answer #7 · answered by Sage 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, if two things are not different then they are the same thing, not two things
2006-10-20 01:06:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Equals equal each other.
2006-10-20 01:13:29 · answer #9 · answered by Sophist 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is too simple.
2006-10-20 01:00:43 · answer #10 · answered by huh 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋