A heterosexual would be labeled a pedophile and so would a homosexual , but is there a term or terms to sub categorise further to distinguish the two with one word ?
2006-10-19 14:44:32 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Actually you've nailed the specific term - homosexual pedophile.
Pedophilia is having an erotic interest in children that exceeds one’s erotic interest in adults while teleipohilia is having an erotic interest in adults that exceeds one's erotic interest in children. The term heterosexuality refers to having an erotic interest in the opposite sex that exceeds one’s erotic interest in the same sex, and homosexuality refers to an erotic interest in the same sex that exceeds one’s erotic interest in the opposite sex.
The basic tenet behind describing the human sexual interests under discussion here is that erotic interest in children versus adults is just as integrated into a person as is erotic interest in males versus females. Pedophilic men experience penile erections when they view erotica of children in the same way that teleiophilic men experience erections when they view erotica of adults. Both gay and straight men show little reaction when viewing erotica of the less interesting age group in the same way that both gay and straight men show little reaction when viewing erotica of the less interesting sex. Thus, describing a man’s sexual interest requires naming both the sex and the age that interest him and leads to the terminology above.
Although non-specialists correctly use the word pedophile, that is, to be without regard for whether male or female children are targeted, the colloquial use of the word homosexual refers to homosexual teleiophiles and not homosexual pedophiles. Thus, statements such as “6–8 million boys were abused by age 18 by 1–2 million adult homosexuals” are half truths. Although it might be reasonably said that these perpetrators were homosexual pedophiles, there is no basis on which to believe they were homosexual teleiophiles (i.e., gay men). To refer to the sex in which the offenders’ were erotically interested and not the age is mere sophistry.
2006-10-19 14:46:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 10⤊ 0⤋
No. The DSM-IV and ICD-9 simply refer to pedophila. You can specify same-sex or opposite sex versions, such as pedophilia - same-sex preference, but it's not a diagnostic category. I think that's because they see the primary problem as being sexually abusing a child, no matter what the sex, and the APA and all other national organizations are clear in not specifying homosexuality/heterosexuality as deviant, to keep from sending a message of intolerance or implied belief that homosexuality is anything other than an existential thing, a human condition. But I didn't write those books, so I can only guess at the reasons!
2006-10-19 21:57:10 · answer #2 · answered by Mark L 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hi Pappa Mac,
You seem to have hit a nerve with a lot of folks out there in computer land....
To answer your question, no there is no term or subcategory... "Pedophile" is the person committing that crime... similar to rapist, or burglar, etc. To sub categorize it would be adding terms to incite additional hate to the crime, for example homosexual pedophile, black rapist, or Muslim burglar. The race, color, creed, religion, or sexual orientation of the perpetrator does not change the crime, unless you get into hate crimes, and that, of course, is a whole 'nother ball of wax... Thanks for the question, maybe it will help to enlighten others...
2006-10-19 23:42:44 · answer #3 · answered by taterliquor 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
By gender no, there is a distinction based on physical development of the child, a pedophile likes pre-pubescent children, if they like post pubescent kids, like 14-16, they are ephebephiles.
2006-10-20 00:39:53 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, because it has nothing to do with sex. The molestation of children is a sick act by a sick individual. Male pedophiles who prey on male children need not be homosexual. Those that do may be called homosexual, but the act of pedophilia has nothing to do with what sex the perpetrator is romantically attracted to.
2006-10-19 21:49:53 · answer #5 · answered by Deirdre H 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In 'pedophile' you don't have the sexual preference for genders...but under age victims.. He could be a homosexual, a heterosexual or whatever....
2006-10-19 21:54:19 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
who cares all pedophiles
should die for there sins homosexual or heterosexual it dose not matter
after all they are just children, Innocent children
no one should ever have to go though that
we should all be care full how our children are with and teach them what is wrong so if they ever did get molested they would tell somebody
remember pedophiles are not always men women can just as bad and seem to get away with it just as much if not more
2006-10-20 03:51:39 · answer #7 · answered by Zara3 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Congressman
2006-10-19 22:35:58 · answer #8 · answered by David W 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, pedophile, any adult no matter what their sexual preference is a pedophile if he/she commits sexual acts with an underage child.
2006-10-19 22:09:47 · answer #9 · answered by Enterrador 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. A pedophile is a pedophile. They can be gay or straight, man or woman. Good Luck ! :)
2006-10-19 21:47:12 · answer #10 · answered by tysavage2001 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋