if there is a sign, NO PARKING ON BOTH SIDES, and a cop gives you a ticket for the violation, can you challenge in on the court that you didnt really park on both sides??
2006-10-19 02:24:48 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Trivia
Be sure to tell them the sign should read "No parking on either side." Very clever of you to catch this!
2006-10-19 03:34:07 · answer #1 · answered by Mooseles 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The success of your defence is based on "no parking on both sides of the street at the same time" is the natural interpretation of the sign. The cop will argue in contrast that "no parking is the condition imposed on both sides of the street" is the natural interpretation of the sign. The court will probably side with the cop because 1) if your interpretation was the natural interpretation, the sign would never have been written as it was in order to avoid having people interpret it as you want to and 2) since it is physically impossible to simultaneously park on both sides of the street, it would be pointless (and therefore the municipality wouldn't bother) to post a sign prohibiting the impossible. But all that being said, go ahead, if nothing else, you'll probably bring a smile to the judge's lips.
2006-10-19 05:43:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Not in Britain, at any rate. There is a legal hypothetical entity called a "reasonable man", and cases like this are decided by what the court thinks a reasonable man would think, not by what you can argue is a possible interpretation based on a grammar book and a dictionary. If a reasonable man would be unsure of the meaning, you win; if he would assume that both meant either, you lose.
2006-10-20 06:46:02 · answer #3 · answered by bh8153 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
jay!what about the middle of the road.park there.lol
any way we must obey the law.
2006-10-19 02:29:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think you have a case there! lol
2006-10-19 02:32:19 · answer #5 · answered by Deep Thought 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋