2006-10-18 23:49:46 · 3 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
because, the idea you have may get wrong with others, that's why before making a decision about that ida, make sure you did explain it further that it will result to a same idea of different idea..
2006-10-19 00:24:52 · answer #1 · answered by jO-An 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you trying to distinguish the abstract "idea" perceived in the mind from the physical "representation" that is experienced through the senses (most commonly a representation is seen or heard as opposed to ideas which are merely "thought"). One idea can have different representations, such as a play, movie or book based on the same concept or story. So there can be several different representations all based on the same idea. Whose terms are you using? Is this for a psychology class on "perception" using textbook definitions of "idea" vs. "representation"? If so, these formal definitions would depend on your teacher or the author or philosopher you are studying. Is this for legal questions on terms of copyrights and intellectual property? In the U.S. you cannot copyright titles; you must have a tangible enough "representation" of the story you are trying to copyright before you can register to protect it. If you only have an "idea" in your mind, you can't file that on a form with the government. For inventions the description must distinguish it from other products. Otherwise, it is not clear who controls or owns the copyright if there are similar "ideas."
2006-10-19 07:38:20 · answer #2 · answered by emilynghiem 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
who says, it is not .?.consider ..though it maybe considered 'deep' or other various 'labels' ; that there is first and foremost ,(read) ultimately just/only 'one' idea.this idea can be expressed thusly: I'm that I'm..."everything else" is just/only expressions of this 'idea'
2006-10-19 18:26:06 · answer #3 · answered by errorfinder 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋