2006-10-18 23:27:22 · 9 answers · asked by jaya 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
yes they do have less inertia in comparision with any other shaped body.this isdue to he fact that frictional force which help in slowing the body act less in a spherical bodies
this is because sliding friction>than rolling friction
which a spherical body posses
2006-10-21 18:38:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Inertia for translation (motion in a straight line) depends only on mass. Pushing a 2,000 pound car takes the same amount of force regardless of whether it is long and narrow, short and wide (or spherical?). This results from the fact that the inertia (tendency to remain in a constant state of rest or motion) depends on the sum of the inertia of every particle (atom and molecule) in the body. However, (angular) moment of inertia depends on distribution of mass. If the mass of a given solid metal sphere is changed into a hollow metal sphere (or into a long rod?) the moments of inertia will differ. This results from mass being more or less distant from the center of mass and rotation.
2006-10-19 07:10:54 · answer #2 · answered by Kes 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. The inertia is the same. The reason it seems smaller is that spherical object have less surface area in contact with another surface. To measure inertial force one needs to calculate surface area in moving contact.
2006-10-19 06:30:33 · answer #3 · answered by Jack 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no,it is not correct.confusion arises as we think this with friction.bodies having same mass, irrespective of their shape, has same inertia of rest and inertia of motion too in absence of friction.
2006-10-19 07:18:58 · answer #4 · answered by C.Bhartiya 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No they do not. Only the rolling co-officient is lesser than the sliding co-officient of friction. In space a sphere and a cube of same mass will require the same force to dislodge.
2006-10-19 06:30:06 · answer #5 · answered by subodh 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sphere among other geometrical shape have minimum area and this leads to less inertia.
2006-10-19 06:37:51 · answer #6 · answered by eshaghi_2006 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there is no inertia 'at' rest for any body. Motion is required for inertia.
2006-10-19 06:29:35 · answer #7 · answered by Bear Naked 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Intertia depends only on mass.
2006-10-19 06:50:11 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
watch more star trek youll learn the answer
2006-10-19 06:32:08 · answer #9 · answered by Steel 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋