1=1
One is equal to another one as an idea.
One on the L.H.S is not equal to the another one on the R.H.S of equality if they are not ideas.
No difference must be realized between one and another one, if there are ideas.
=>No difference can be realized among our ideas on different ones(things).
2006-10-18 19:57:46 · 4 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
i think you mean resolved rather than realized
2006-10-18 20:05:07 · answer #1 · answered by bev 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
after just reading your post (here){Samlyn Josfyn}and just previosly answering your previous post...my perception is;you have answered your previous post's question, here in this one...maybe it is just me ,but i'am confused .i'am open to your veiw here in this post .however, i'll still stick with my answer (see:my answer in your previous post) to the view of differences can be 'C' seen.*note through; open mind filters...in one perception : YES 1=1 , all=1 , 1=all . therefore no "differences" at all. ' in all ', of course all is all. the question is 'is there any ____[blank] that which is 'out of all'.in other words..that which is = is :: VS. (verses ) that which is not = is ____[blank]
2006-10-18 21:38:09 · answer #2 · answered by errorfinder 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
unanimity does not mean unity -- in thoughts, acts or words.
.
2006-10-18 20:04:58 · answer #3 · answered by jedi_rei 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it makes you worried?
2006-10-18 20:06:58 · answer #4 · answered by Lady Luck 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋