1=1 as on idea. One is equal to another one as an idea.
One on the L.H.S is not equal to the another one on the R.H.S of equality if they are not ideas.
There can be no difference between one and another one, if there are ideas.
If a difference is realized between one and another one, then they cannot be ideas.
=>There can never be a difference among our ideas on different things.
2006-10-18 19:16:46 · 5 answers · asked by Opposite D 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
"There can be no difference between one and another one, if there are ideas."
Why?
Two ideas can be different and still both be ideas.
You posit two ideas that are exactly the same, and say that if one is no longer an idea, then they can't be the same. That's valid. Then you converse it to say that if two ideas are different, one of them must not be an idea. That isn't valid.
2006-10-18 19:29:00 · answer #1 · answered by Josh 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This is nothing but sophistry. The famous sophist argument goes.A criminal knows all the was of committing a crime.
A policeman also knows all the ways of committing a crime.
Therefore a policeman is a criminal.
The fallacy in your argument is
1=1 as one idea. One is equal to another one as an idea(Not because both are ideas but both are the same ,congruent ideas)
One non-idea on the LHS is not equal to Another non-idea on RHS
(not necessarily The commonalty between the two non-ideas is the only factor that both are non-ideas but these could be entirely different,not only different opposing things.)
The third argument is entirely a sleight of hand. The difference between this and the previous one is the removal of non on both the sides of the scale.As I said earlier even the superficial non-idea character of the above was no guarantee of their similarity much less identify. With the taking away even that semblance of that rag they stands exposed revealing their innermost character which is not the same.
The difference between the two already stands exposed but that does not necessarily rob them of their claim to the status of ideas. They may be different ideas. That's all
The conclusion in the last therefore, falls flat on its face.
But I must say you have constructed the argument very clerverly. It has me confused in the beginning even though I am a student of Logic.
2006-10-19 02:52:45 · answer #2 · answered by Prabhakar G 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you have 7 sexy ladies on the side in one town, and seven sexy ladies on the side in another town, and they all are just as good in bed as each other, then you have a ratio of 7:7 sexy ladies which is a 1:1 ratio.
2006-10-19 02:25:21 · answer #3 · answered by Sheriff Leane 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there can be always a difference in our ideas on different things.if u wana travel by a bus and a car surely u will differ in ur idea of doin one same thing that is travelling.
2006-10-19 02:29:28 · answer #4 · answered by hetu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your argument is specious; there is no way to "fix" it.
You cannot equate "1" with "idea."
2006-10-19 02:49:27 · answer #5 · answered by arbiter007 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋