If you've been convicted of a misdomeanor in one state and five years later are charged with a similar crime in another will the DA use that crime against you although it been five years and you have no record in the state you live in now? BTW it's not related to my previous question...I just want to know this one.
2006-10-18 18:07:45 · 2 answers · asked by gimmedanger 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
A crime committed in the past is always not an aggravating circumstance if not within the same category as the new crime as provided for in the Penal Law.
2006-10-18 18:13:42 · answer #1 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They can and will use whatever they can against you. Its there job to make you pay for what you do. So if there is dirt then you can bet your right arm they will bring it out.
2006-10-19 01:42:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋