did not sign a letter of guarantee for payment
2006-10-18 15:11:24 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It probably depends on where you live and whether you are a widow or widower. According to the common law "doctrine of necessaries," a man was responsible for the medical bills of his wife whether he signed a guaranty or not. However, the reverse was not true. As a result, some states, such as my home state of Florida, have abolished the doctrine of necessaries on equal protection grounds. Thus, in Florida, a surviving spouse would not be responsible for the debts of the deceased spouse simply by virtue of the marriage. The problem with the common law doctrine can also be remedied by statute. Your best bet is to contact a lawyer in your state who can sort this out for you (unless you live in Florida, in which case you have your answer). Good luck.
2006-10-18 16:04:36 · answer #1 · answered by RLP 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
as far as i comprehend, the valuables of the deceased is responsible for all costs incurred by using the deceased. As a key stakeholder in the valuables, the surviving important different could opt to cover the charges out of the valuables. The rules could selection from state to state, yet i could anticipate them to be somewhat consistent on that element.
2016-10-19 23:34:16 · answer #2 · answered by cardish 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The surviving spouse is not responsible for his medical bills. Just don't pay them.
2006-10-18 15:17:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
if you did not sighn a letter of guarantee for payment they can not come after you
2006-10-18 15:14:46 · answer #4 · answered by kristikay1965 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You may be able to claim bankruptcy if the Bush administration didn't destroy that option. They were trying.
2006-10-18 15:13:27 · answer #5 · answered by Reba K 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋