why is the name Stephen is pronounced like Steven? isn't the Ph sounds like F? why not Steffen?

Answer 1

Originally, "Stephen" WAS pronounced with an /f/-sound, just as in the Greek original (Stephanos). So the spelling "Stephen" was altogether appropriate.

But language changes, including the pronunciation of words, and is not necessarily held back by how things are written. (That would be backwards -- spelling is originally set up to reflect current pronunciation, not the other way round.)

So what happens when the spoken language changes and the word ends up pronounced as "Steven"? Well, you have two choices:

One is to adopt a new spelling, which of course, many have done in this case, with the result that we have BOTH "Stephen" and "Steven" (And there are many examples personal names with at least two spellings for this very reason.)

The other option is to contue to spell the word in the traditional way even though it no longer matches the spelling. Of course, there are a great many cases of this in English (best example -- the various pronunciations of "-ough" after a major sound shift in later Middle English).

Note that this continuing of a TRADITION is ESPECIALLY common with NAMES. Indeed, we find the same thing in many languages, even those whose spelling is otherwise quite phonetic. That tradition, family pride, etc., should trump functionality and 'logic' in an area like this is quite understandable.

(Example: German had a major spelling reform in the 19th century. In it words like "Thal" ["valley", English "dale"] and "roth" ["red"] were stripped of the extraneous "h". BUT many folks who had NAMES with such a spelling -- even the same root word in them, did NOT change. Thus we still find names like "Lieberthal", "Rothschild" and "Goethe".)

As far as the specific change in the pronunciation of "Stephen", I'm fairly certain that the shift from an /f/ to /v/ pronunciation was related to the change of the pronunciation of the first e, as part of the "Great Vowel Shift" that took place in English from late Middle English to Early Modern English (over a period of time, but roughly the late 15th to early 16th century). Before this the long e was pronounced as it still is in most European languages (as in the "re" of "do re mi").

Note that this shift was taking place at JUST the time the printing press was being introduced and our modern spellings were beginning to be set. (Some have suggested if that invention had come one generation later, a great many of our most unusual English spellings would not exist today.) All the more reason that "Stephen" continued to be widely used.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Vowel_Shift
http://www.historyhouse.com/in_history/spelling/

One other factor relevan to this cases like this, is the fact that "Stephen" was a BIBLICAL name, and that the spelling that people found in their Bibles was the one many (most?) were likely to use. In the past few centuries that would be the spelling found in the King James Version of 1611 -- but the language of the KJV was itself very traditional, often reflecting not the current trends, but those of earlier biblical translations going back through the Geneva Bible to William Tyndale's translation in the 1520s. (In Tyndale's day the vowel shift was not yet complete everywhere, "thee"/"thou" were in much more widespread use, etc.)

Answer 2

Here's a simple explaination! English devised a way to make Similar names of the opposited Genders possible. Michael is MIKLE and Michelle is Mish-eL. Sounds different right? The "PH" is actually a two-letter one character that is called PHI from the original LatinIt was pronounced FY or Fee and based on F's pronunciations! it's actually about 99% of the time F is unvoiced but due to Women usually Presiding over the realm of conversation thiss being an indicator that F is unvoiced Males are opposite to that F principal, like the F in the word OF. It is also a difference in the first E Females are shot where the Males E is long because He's male. The "PH" factor is the Female goes by the first F pronunciation and male go by the F in OF. Ladies first, Men second. Stephanie = Ste-FuN-ee & Stephen = SteeV-en.

Answer 3

English is becoming, if not already, the only international language. Problem is, it is very difficult to spell, which gives a hard time for people who are not English or American. For example "sh" in "shoe" has the same sound as the "ti" in international. And think about all the times "i" is the same as "y", "a", "e" are pronounced differently, double "l"s, double "p"s, "c"="k"="q"="ck", "ph"="f" - well, you get the picture. Phonetic English will solve this problem by providing standardized spelling, eliminate freakish spelling (such as "knee") and establish standardized vowels for the different sounds our mouths can make. This will nake reading and writing English much easier for foreigners as well as for Americans.

For example:Inglish is bekoming, if not olredy, the only internashional langwaj. Problem is, it is veri difikult to spel, wich givs a hard tym for peepol hu ar not Inglish or Amerikan. Fonetik Inglish wil solv this problem, by provyding standardyzed speling...

Answer 4

it is pronounced both ways..it just depends on how the person named says it

Answer 5

English is like that with... everything.

Answer 6

It's pronounced either, or eye-ther way, can you dig it?
You say tomato, I say tomoto........blah,blah,blah.......

Answer 7

Because it is. lol.