2006-10-18 12:29:08 · 6 answers · asked by robert m 7 in Sports ➔ Baseball
No, as of now the MLB let's the league that wins the All-Star game have home-field advantage. Bud Selig put the rule in after that publicity nightmare in the All-Star game a few years ago in Milwaukee when the game went to extra innings and the teams were running out of players, so Selig made the game end in a tie if nobody won in the next inning they played. And noone did, so people got really mad that the all-star game ended in a tie. They made this home-field advantage rule to make the All-Star game look like it means something again.
2006-10-18 12:37:01 · answer #1 · answered by Paul 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not any longer. They used to until 2003, when the leagues winning the All-Star game would get home field advantage. The reason this was done was over the embarassment of tie in the 2002 All-Star game in Milawaukee.
2006-10-18 19:32:22 · answer #2 · answered by mf52dolphin 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The winner of the all star game gets home field advantage.
2006-10-18 19:35:59 · answer #3 · answered by Dusty 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Whoever wins the all start game gets home field advantage.
2006-10-18 19:32:39 · answer #4 · answered by yblur 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you mean in the WS than no. whoever wins the All-star game gets home field adv.
2006-10-18 19:31:00 · answer #5 · answered by Rene C 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
WHATS THAT?? sry hav no clue
2006-10-18 19:32:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋