Suppose that you are dealt two cards off the top, without replacement, from a freshly shuffled deck. What is the probability that you are dealt a pair? (i.e. you are dealt a pair of aces, or a pair of kings, or a pair of queens, etc.).
The answer is .0588, but i don't know why..please help!
2006-10-18 09:54:47 · 3 answers · asked by fuilui213 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The probability that the first two cards are a pair can also be restated as this: The probability that the second card is a pair to the first card. When restated like this, we then need to only look at our 2nd card to solve the probability.
You have 52 cards, you deal 1, it is whatever it is, call it X if you want.
Now you have 51 cards left, and you need to know the probability that the next card you deal is also X.
Well, there's 3 X's left (since you dealt one already) out of 51 cards, so your probability is 3/51 = 1/17 = 0.0588
HTH! :-)
2006-10-18 10:04:21 · answer #1 · answered by I ♥ AUG 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The first card doesn't factor in because it doesn't matter what you get. After that, your chances of getting a second card of the same type are 3 out of 51 because there are 4 of each type of card and 3 of the type of card you picked left in the deck and 51 total cards left. 3/51 = 0.588
2006-10-18 17:08:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it would be the probabilty of getting an ace and an ace. theres 4 aces in 52 cards. so the first draw your chances are 4 out of 52, second 3 out of 51.
since you want an ace and ace, you multiply those prob. together.
4/52 x 3/51 = .00452
i dont get the same answer as you have, but this is how i would do it.
2006-10-18 17:06:15 · answer #3 · answered by loveboatcaptain 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋