2006-10-18 03:23:57 · 8 answers · asked by tommyboy 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
When you consider a general logarithm to a base m of a number k, you're basically asking what is the power of m that gives you k as the answer. i.e. such that,
m^y = k
where y is the required value in the exponent.
So here if lg represents the logarithm to the base 10, then
lg 100 = k
but, lg 100 = lg 10^2 = 2lg 10 = 2
why? well, as you see if,
10^x = 100
x=2 evidently.
As you might realise the logarithm to the base m of m is 1.
2006-10-18 05:32:54 · answer #1 · answered by yasiru89 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A log of a given number is the power to which the base must be raised to equal that number... so log of 100 to base 10 =2 , because 10^2 =100.
2006-10-18 10:27:40 · answer #2 · answered by avian 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Log 100 = 2
2006-10-18 10:28:15 · answer #3 · answered by FrogDog 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Which x gives 10^x=100? This will be the logarithm you want.
2006-10-18 10:25:39 · answer #4 · answered by mathematician 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
2 cause 10^2 = 100
2006-10-18 10:26:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's the same thing as asking: 10 to what power = 100.
The answer is 2.
2006-10-18 10:52:17 · answer #6 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually it is 2.
2006-10-18 10:27:42 · answer #7 · answered by sydney m 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure coz maths has never been my strong point, but i think its.....2
2006-10-18 10:26:23 · answer #8 · answered by Mayur P 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋