math
2006-10-17 14:28:30 · 12 answers · asked by alternativeman5000 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
By definition 2 is included in the set of prime numbers.
2006-10-17 14:33:00 · answer #1 · answered by professional student 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yes.
That may seem weird, since no other even number is a prime.
But 3 is a prime, and no other multiple of 3 is prime.
And 5 is prime, while no other multiple of 5 is prime.
It's the same with 2. Two just happens to be the FIRST even number (i.e., the first number divisible by 2), so naturally it's a prime.
2006-10-17 21:41:44 · answer #2 · answered by actuator 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes...2 is a prime number. It can only be devided by 1 or itself. Ergo, must be a prime number.
2006-10-17 21:36:08 · answer #3 · answered by zealot_guy 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
NO,
the numbers 0-2 are neither composite nor prime.
2006-10-17 21:41:54 · answer #4 · answered by iammisc 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes it's a prime. it's multiple is either 1 or itself. Thus it's a prime.
2006-10-17 21:32:00 · answer #5 · answered by tinikk 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
2 is the only even prime. Its factors are only 1 and itself.
2006-10-17 21:34:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes because prime nuumbers are numbers that have 1 and itself as multiples
2006-10-17 21:58:42 · answer #7 · answered by unique 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is because it can only be divisible by 1 and itself
2006-10-18 08:16:41 · answer #8 · answered by bibi 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I really had to think about it, but yes, 2 is!
2006-10-17 21:35:37 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
yes. it can only be multiplied by 1.
2006-10-17 21:30:15 · answer #10 · answered by absolutenellie 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋