2006-10-16 14:43:28 · 5 answers · asked by Joseph g 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
21 years old and male. Technically, there were no racial restrictions anymore. Although, in practice, very few blacks were able to vote.
2006-10-16 14:47:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depended on the state. Wyoming, incidentally, allowed women to vote starting in 1870, I believe.
Love Jack
2006-10-16 21:50:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Due to the poll tax, gender restrictions, Grandfather Clause, and literacy tests, only adult white males could vote. The poll tax was hard for the newly-freed African-American men to afford, and since they had been uneducated as slaves, they couldn't pass the literacy tests. Even uneducated poor white males could vote, however, because they were able to pass the Grandfather Clause, which was a loophole allowing those whose grandparents had voted before a specific year to vote. The specific year varied by state. Suffice it to say that adult white males, regardless of wealth or education, were able to vote.
2006-10-16 21:49:59 · answer #3 · answered by sharp will always be flying 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only males who owned property could vote.
2006-10-16 21:46:13 · answer #4 · answered by timex846 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It depends on the Country.
Hope this helps.
2006-10-16 21:50:53 · answer #5 · answered by An Unhappy Yahoo User 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋