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im talking about the case of Dred Scott Vs. Sanford

2006-10-16 02:04:10 · 4 answers · asked by Amy R 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

4 answers

The verdict in that court case showed the slave in question was property and as such was still property even if the slave was in a free state.

2006-10-16 02:12:10 · answer #1 · answered by sprcpt 6 · 0 0

Prior to Scott, several free states had fugitive slave laws requiring the prompt return of runaways, so in that case the answer to your question is no. The rationale was that slaves were property, and by analogy a runaway cow was still the property of its owner, regardless of whether it crossed state lines.

The arguments in Scott muddied the waters a bit. Scott argued that because he had lived for a long time in a free state, his slavery was expired (Illinois law allowed this), and because he returned freely to his home (slave) state (bad idea), he was free.

The basic decision in Scott had little to do with slavery itself, as the court simply ruled that it did not have jurisdiction to hear the case (they ruled that the constitution as written did not extend citizenship rights to blacks). However, in the opinion, a majority of justices went on to declare the Missouri compromise illegal, and that is what set people off.

2006-10-16 09:14:53 · answer #2 · answered by Jamestheflame 4 · 1 0

Unfortunately in his case the Supreme Court ruled 7/2 against him.He was labeled as property.

2006-10-16 09:10:56 · answer #3 · answered by eva b 5 · 1 0

Does a woman cease to be female if she walks into a men's club? It's not the laws of our location that define us. A slave remains a slave until they remove their shackles and take their freedom.

2006-10-16 09:13:59 · answer #4 · answered by W0LF 5 · 0 0

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