2006-10-16 01:58:19 · 7 answers · asked by zanzabarr 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
No. Sometimes the Bible is proferred as a matter of course, in which case he would ask to affirm. In olden times he might have been asked to state why, but this is never done nowadays. Some court ushers are sensitive enough to ask beforehand whether he wishes to take the oath and if so on what book.
The affirmation as used in the Courts of England and Wales is as follows:
"I do truly, honestly and sincerely declare and affirm that the evidence I shall give shall be the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth."
It is as binding as an oath for purposes of the Perjury Act.
2006-10-16 02:05:58 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, in the saem way they wouldn't ask a muslim to swear on the bible, those who are religious use the book of their religion, those who are atheist just make on oath of affirmation that they will tell the truth.
2006-10-16 09:28:22 · answer #2 · answered by mike-from-spain 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, the testimony is taken under 'affirmation' which is a promise to the court to tell the truth - any evidence given under affirmation is then subject to the same perjury rules as sworn evidence.
2006-10-16 09:01:10 · answer #3 · answered by eriverpipe 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, you just swear an oath.
2006-10-16 09:00:58 · answer #4 · answered by sarcasticquotemarks 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No they have a separate oath for atheists.
2006-10-16 09:14:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No point is there, that is why there is the affirmation instead
2006-10-16 09:38:03 · answer #6 · answered by Amanda K 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2006-10-16 09:09:46 · answer #7 · answered by llamedos 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋