when conducting an experiment of falling bodies why is the distance of the steel ball measured from the bottom of the ball rather than the center of the steel?
2006-10-15 18:04:49 · 7 answers · asked by 3ajeeba_q8 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
It doesn't matter what part of the ball you measure, as long as it's consistent and accurate. But it's much easier to accurately measure the location of the bottom or top than the middle. If you photograph it against the background of a ruler, you can see exactly where on the ruler the bottom or top lies. But you can't judge the middle because it blocks your view of the ruler. If you're measuring by the sound of the ball hitting a barrier or the ground, you're measuring the leading edge. If you're measuring when the ball blocks a light beam, you again want to measure exactly when the ball blocks or unblocks the beam.
2006-10-15 19:04:53 · answer #1 · answered by Frank N 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're trying to measure distance travelled, which requires a reference point. The center of a ball can't make contact with the ground, so you need a point on the outside of the ball. Likewise, a point at the top of the ball would have the same problem. In both cases, when you measure the distance fallen, you're measuring it with respect to the surface of the ground and the only part of the ball that actually hits the ground is the bottom of the ball.
If you measure the distance from the center of the ball to a point that is one ball radius above the ground, you'll the get same distance.
2006-10-15 18:12:00 · answer #2 · answered by arbiter007 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the first surface to touch the floor/earth/surface is the bottom of the steel ball. As a ball is spherical no matter how many times it rotates during a fall it will always be the same distance if measured from an edge of the ball. Afterall the impact occurs when a surface of object A contacts the surface of object B.
2006-10-15 18:14:12 · answer #3 · answered by GhandiDahandi 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i do know that a steel ball and a much lighter object dropped at exactly the same time will both hit the floor at the same time .
2006-10-15 20:57:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the gap a body has fallen at any instantaneous is proportional to the sq. of the time spent falling. in order to finish: the gap all bodies fall in a vacuum is proportional to the sq. of the time. the speed of all falling bodies in a vacuum is proportional to time. Use right here algebraic expressions to sparkling up issues describing the action of bodies in loose fall (a) s = a million/2gt^2, (b) v = gt, (c) a = g.
2016-12-04 21:17:17 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because that is the area that makes contact with the ground first.
2006-10-15 18:07:31 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because that would be the distance traveled
2006-10-15 21:15:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anas 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋