2006-10-15 07:52:56 · 5 answers · asked by :) 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
the slope at pi/2 would be 2e^0= 2
because cos at pi/2 is equal to 0, which makes the stuff inside the e 0
sooooooooooooooooooooooo
y-y1=2(x-x1)
equation of a line
now substitute in.
y1=17, because it goes through 17
x1=pi/2
answer=
2x-pi+17=y
2006-10-15 13:23:29 · answer #1 · answered by heyhelpme41 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This one is trivial, and I'll just give you a guide. Evaluate f' at pi/2 to get the slope. You already have the point which the tangent line must go through. Put these two pieces together, and you're done.
2006-10-15 07:55:39 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2e^(Pi/2 Cos Pi/2)
2006-10-15 07:57:42 · answer #3 · answered by Mathew C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
-1/x = pi/2
2006-10-15 07:54:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
well someone might just be really smsart?
2006-10-15 07:54:12 · answer #5 · answered by jomama143 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋