what is relationship between economic completion and prejudice? Do you think prejudice would continue to exict if everyone had a good job with a comfortable income?
2006-10-15 05:20:12 · 2 answers · asked by Irina C 6 in Social Science ➔ Economics
Yes, becuase there are other factors here. I think you are mistaking economic completion (impossible) with economic stability. Economics is not something that is still. It is always hurling forth in a direction, going up and down, but generally always continuing. In a perfect world, everyone would have jobs, but even if the economy was perfect, that wouldn't happen. Because of that, prejudice will always exist in a certain form, as for racism, that is a different story. Some prejudice is good (would you give your money to known thief to invest?), but when it comes to discrimination of a person based on their beliefs, ethnicity and the like, that is bad.
Ya dig?
2006-10-16 13:56:01 · answer #1 · answered by wheresheleaves 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Criticising Israeli coverage isn't anti Semitic. All Jewish and Arab human beings come from the comparable inventory. with the intention to be anti Semitic you're able to could desire to precise a dislike for the two sides.
2016-11-23 12:59:08 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋