Quine shows how we may predicate "being-Socrates" of Socrates, then evaluate the description: there exists an object such that it is-Socrates. If all proper names, which implicitly commit us to the existence of the denotata, are reducible in our language to a description (however irreducible the description may be) are we then committed to an ontology without objects?
2006-10-14
18:22:26
·
6 answers
·
asked by
-.-
6
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy
I suppose all noun phrases refer to objects-- to things and not properties. 'Redness' is nothing more than "the set of all red objects" which doesn't commit us to the existence of the irreducible property over and above the particular. If a theory stipulates "there exists an x" as a requirement, we are committed to that thing in the ontology. Quine showed how we are not committed to non-existent objects, though we may still meaningfully talk about them when we say "Pegasus does not exist". He reduces names, that imply existence, to definite descriptions, which can then be analyzed out by quantified variables under predication.
Noun phrases include definite descriptions of the kind: "the tallest alcoholic in the bar"; indefinite descriptions: "a man walking a poodle"; proper names: Napoleon Bonaparte; and also the deviant class of properties: redness, "the most salient pitch", etc.
2006-10-14
19:39:02 ·
update #1
Descriptions eliminate the need to include the objects we talk about, either truthfully or falsely, in our ontology. If we affirm the description "The tallest alcoholic in the bar is tired" then we are committed to an object satisfying the variable. Since all nouns -- even proper names, the last bastion of reference -- can be described by means of description, it seems that we are no longer comitted to objects at all.
I can replace "object" in the metalanguage with a description. Wherever there is hypostasis, predication will subsume.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell%27s_theory_of_descriptions
2006-10-14
19:54:01 ·
update #2