thats quite a sporean way of putting it, u can use it that way or just say 'she has taken her meal' or 'she just ate'
2006-10-14 18:19:52
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answer #1
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answered by larrysbt 3
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Yes, it is correct.
The first person to respond to your question suggested that "she ate rice" would be more proper than "she has eaten rice."
There is a somewhat subtle difference between these two statements. It is not simply that one is more acceptable, but that they have slightly different meetings. If English is your first language, I'm sure you're familiar (at least subconsciously) of the difference.
"She has eaten rice" lets us know that at some time in the past this person has consumed rice. Depending on the context, this may imply that she has had at least one experience of tasting rice, or it might indicate that at some time in the past she ate rice regularly.
"She ate rice" would typically be used to specify what happened at a particular time. For example, it might be in response to a question about what she had for lunch today.
Bottom line: Both versions are grammatically correct. Neither is preferable to the other. They simply have slightly different connotations.
2006-10-15 00:49:02
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answer #2
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answered by actuator 5
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Perfectly fine!
2006-10-15 00:44:38
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answer #3
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answered by schaianne 5
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It depends on what you're trying to say or infer... the tense, and whether the predicate is active or passive, etc... IT DEPENDS!
2006-10-15 00:39:40
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answer #4
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answered by cherodman4u 4
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it is perfectly right to say "she has eaten rice "
2006-10-15 00:42:54
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answer #5
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answered by alpha 7
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yea thats sounds just fine
2006-10-15 00:37:41
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answer #6
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answered by donielle 7
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yes
2006-10-15 00:38:51
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answer #7
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answered by the shadow knows 3
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she ate rice would be more proper way of saying it.
2006-10-15 00:31:54
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answer #8
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answered by karchar 2
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