Alas my friend you have stumbled into the wonders of the English language, the phrase 'They couldn't have lunch' has several slightly different meanings, depending on why they couldn't have lunch. If somebody banned them from lunching then 'They were not allowed to have lunch', if they themselves were prevented from having lunch by some unforeseen circumstance 'They were unable to have lunch'. If they stopped themselves 'They did not have lunch'.
What a wonderful language, hope this helps.
2006-10-14 06:57:14
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answer #1
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answered by SteveUK 5
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No, the closest I can get to that making sense with that phrase is 'They weren't allowed to have lunch.' It doesn't have the 'be' but it's pretty close.
2006-10-14 06:47:38
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answer #2
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answered by tanzliebe 2
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Close...but
They weren't allowed to have lunch.
2006-10-14 06:46:17
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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They should not be allowed to have lunch.
I think you're confused because "They couldn't have lunch," is a statement of the past where "Be allowed to," is a statement in the present tense. You need to change the tense in the sentence which changes the meaning of the sentence. It doesn't sound like a very good teacher to me.
2006-10-14 06:45:27
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answer #4
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answered by robtheman 6
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They weren't allowed to have lunch is correct.
2006-10-14 06:45:42
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answer #5
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answered by tinamaries43 5
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no, the correct phrase should be "they wouldn't be allowed to have lunch"
2006-10-14 06:48:59
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answer #6
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answered by sushobhan 6
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The won't be allowed to have lunch.
2006-10-14 06:48:57
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answer #7
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answered by bizzigirl2000 2
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No. I think you mean to say "They weren't allowed to have lunch."
2006-10-14 06:46:14
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answer #8
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answered by desolationangel 3
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No, it is not correct. "They were not allowed to have lunch" is the best solution for past tense.
2006-10-14 06:45:57
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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It should be "They wouldn't be allowed to have lunch." Just replace the contraction "didn't" with "wouldn't".
2006-10-14 06:46:22
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answer #10
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answered by ACC 2
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