below the x-axis.
2006-10-14 05:09:16 · 5 answers · asked by Olivia 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
False.
2006-10-14 05:41:40 · answer #1 · answered by 1,1,2,3,3,4, 5,5,6,6,6, 8,8,8,10 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, maybe a X is existed that f(x)>0. so it's not always below the axis of X. but it is below the axis of X from one point to infinity.
2006-10-14 06:13:40 · answer #2 · answered by matchstick man 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To be accurate one should say that 'strictly' increasing or decreasing functions are necessarily invertible. The word 'strictly' is necessary because a function that remained constant for an interval before increasing again would not be invertible.
2006-10-14 11:42:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The graph don't have to be below x-axis
2006-10-14 05:15:14 · answer #4 · answered by shamu 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, the graph of y=f'(x), not f(x), must be below the x-axis
2006-10-14 05:13:06 · answer #5 · answered by James L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋