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3) James Baldwin knows, of course, that so-called Black English could not be considered a distinct language, since most linguists would argue it follows most of the structural rules of standard English even while it has developed a few of its own distinct constructions over time. Why then does he title his essay "If Black English Isn't a Language, Then Tell Me What Is?" What does he want readers to know or understand about Black English? Why? As you discuss this essay, be sure and center your discussion around the following quote and connect it back to what you see Baldwin doing/attempting to do here (his purpose in writing):

"Language, incontestably, reveals the speaker. Language also, far more dubiously, is meant to define the other--and in this case, the other is refusing to be defined by a language that has never been able to recognize him."

2006-10-13 17:43:27 · 3 answers · asked by ali s 1 in Education & Reference Homework Help

3 answers

I think he is implying that denying Black English (Ebonics) as a recognized language is actually a form of oppression which places white middle- and upper-class values higher than others.

2006-10-13 18:00:33 · answer #1 · answered by bunstihl 6 · 2 1

In WHITE ENGLISH written in black, but non-discriminatory "lingo"[an American colloquialism -- not part of a language]; I suppose he may be a "rebel-rouser" and desire me to sue my teacher for violating my freedom of religion with the homework assignment and interfering with My state's
STATES RIGHTS insuring me a right to education without infringing
upon my Constitutional rights as a U.S, citizen. ....or just HOPING it may happen where OTHER PEOPLE BESIDES HIMSELF -- LIKE TO GET ALONG
AND AREN'T SO "COLOR CONSCIOUS". Then he might just be test marketing in other countries. RAD Momma. If Honkey English, then I English to. [normally written as "too" by English writing humans that pass English exams in school]-- regardless of sex, race, religion, or ethnic background.
Relating to THE FINAL PARAGRAPH OF OUR INSTRUCTIONS: Shakespear
"communicated" more CLEARLY than the aforementioned, with FAR FEW words and could probably do a masterful job indulging in the "referenced
colloquialisms"! Adieu Mon Amies; I shall now go to French Yahoo! Answers and comment on BLACK FRENCH!

2006-10-13 18:19:56 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

James Baldwin really just wants people to buy his book.

2006-10-13 17:47:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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