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Could someone help me find the derivative of (tanx)^-1? Does finding it have anything to do with tan^-1(x)? Thanks.

2006-10-13 17:31:48 · 11 answers · asked by Captain Socialism 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Also, the problem comes due to my answer (and the ones on the forum) being different from the one in the book (-sec^2x/tan^2x, or csc^2x).

2006-10-13 17:41:32 · update #1

11 answers

they are not same. (tan x)^-1 is reciprocal of tan x and tan^1- x is inverse function of tan x


(tan x)^-1 = 1/tanx = cot x

the derivative of cot x = -cosec^2(x)

this can be derived using cotx = cos x / sinx

now cot(x+h) = cos(x+h)/sin (x+h)
cot (x+h) - cot(x) = (-cos x sin (x+h) + sin x cos (x+h))/sin x sin(x+h)
= -sin h/(sin x sin (x+h))

(cot (x+h) - cot x)/h = - (sin h/h)/sin x sin (x+h)

as h->0 left hand side = df/dx and rhs = - 1/ sin^2 x = - cosec^2 x

but

tan^-1(x) = arctan(x)
derivative of arctan x = 1/(1+x^2)
this can be derived but you did not ask for it

2006-10-13 19:08:24 · answer #1 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 2 0

Derivative Tan-1

2016-12-17 13:43:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Tan-1 Derivative

2016-09-29 01:23:16 · answer #3 · answered by quesinberry 4 · 0 0

Rewrite as d/dx (1+tanx)^(-1) By the chain rule we have -1(1+tanx)^(-2) * d/dx(1+tanx) = -1(1+ tanx)^(-2) * sec^2(x) = -sec^2(x)/(1+tanx)^(2)

2016-03-19 06:24:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

RE:
The derivative of (tanx)^-1?
Could someone help me find the derivative of (tanx)^-1? Does finding it have anything to do with tan^-1(x)? Thanks.

2015-08-07 14:30:53 · answer #5 · answered by Tillie 1 · 0 0

-1 times (tanx)^-2 times (sec x) times (tan x)
simplify this

2006-10-13 17:53:35 · answer #6 · answered by Willy Brown 2 · 0 0

For the best answers, search on this site https://shorturl.im/5bDHb

-1/(cos(x)+sin(x))^2 Scroll down to derivative and select choose; show steps.

2016-04-01 03:20:49 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

No. Tan^-1(x) (also called arctan(x)) is a different thing.
(tan(x))^-1 = 1/(tan(x)) = 1/((sin(x))/(cos(x))) =
cos(x)/sin(x)
Now apply the quotient rule for derivatives and you're all done.


Doug

2006-10-13 17:35:35 · answer #8 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

No no no! ALL WRONG!!

1 / (1 + x^2) is the definition of d/dx(arctan(x)).

2006-10-13 18:38:57 · answer #9 · answered by trainump 2 · 0 0

Based on what the first guy said the answer you should get is -1/(sin^2(x)).

2006-10-13 17:37:33 · answer #10 · answered by ybot84 2 · 0 1

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