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if as in another question 1and 0.99 reccuring are the same number

so 1 = x = x - dx

then dx would equal 0 not 1 over infinity
then dx over dy would surely be 0 over dy.

2006-10-13 01:39:48 · 13 answers · asked by supremecritic 4 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

i understand that calculus works but that i found this an interesting observation from an earlier question

2006-10-13 01:51:47 · update #1

13 answers

Actually 1 is equal to .99999...

Let .9999... = x
Then 9.9999... = 10*x
Subtract equation 1 from equation 2:

9 = 9*x

or 1 = x

Limits are defined mathematically in a very precise way to eliminate the possibility of paradoxical problems like you suggest. Often in non-rigorous classes the fine details are skipped over, which could be why you have problems with it.

2006-10-13 02:54:55 · answer #1 · answered by sofarsogood 5 · 0 0

"so 1 = x = x - dx"

What the hell are you trying to say? I don't think what you said makes any sense at all! I'm a freshman in college, and i'm only in calculus 1. My class just started derivatives, but i'm way ahead of my class. However, I don't understand what you're trying to say!

x = x - dx (x = 1)

dx = x - x

dx = 1 - 1

dx = 0

I can see that dx = 0, but how does that suggest that calculus is wrong? Does "dx" even represent a derivative of anything? You're not even taking the derivative of anything, so why did you randomly mention "dy?" Shouldn't it be "d/dx," where you're finding the derivative of a function with respect to x? I don't think you know what you're talking about!

2006-10-13 09:04:15 · answer #2 · answered by عبد الله (ドラゴン) 5 · 0 2

dx isn't supposed to BE 1 over infinity or zero, it's supposed to TEND TO zero. As dx (and dy) tend to zero, the results found using calculus become more and more accurate, so when dx and dy become infinitesimally, but NOT infinitely small, the inaccuracy involved in calculus becomes infinitesimally small too. So calculus is accurate to an arbitrarily high degree of accuracy, which effectively means it is infinitely accurate, without contradicting itself.

2006-10-13 17:47:54 · answer #3 · answered by THJE 3 · 0 0

There is no slope of a tangent line and there is no area under a curve and all those proofs are wrong is that what you are saying? I doubt it. Sorry was 1995 when I took calculus, but no I think it was right. I understood it at the time and was best in my class. It made sense to me. Integrate that. Hell I do not remember what I am saying. I never used it so I lost it.

2006-10-13 08:44:10 · answer #4 · answered by adobeprincess 6 · 0 1

Of course.

Calculus is based on approximations.
Fine ones, but approximations all the same.
If infact the curves we study are fractal and not smooth as we usually represent them then calculus fails in some ways.

However, it is a tool that is very fit for purpose and is correct for what it should be used for.

2006-10-13 08:50:18 · answer #5 · answered by Andy 6 · 1 1

dx is NOT a quantity!
is a symbol
and also 1 is not equal to 0.99
1 is equal to: 0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999
an infinite number of 9's

2006-10-13 10:14:07 · answer #6 · answered by locuaz 7 · 0 1

??????

yes calculas is completely wrong that is why all those airplaines crash and why buildings tumble down and why we never went to the moon and why most people say their age wrong
evertyhing is wrong in calc

2006-10-13 08:41:14 · answer #7 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 0 2

It depends on how many half distance steps it takes you to get there.

2006-10-13 08:46:40 · answer #8 · answered by Colorado 5 · 0 2

You are making assumptions not permitted

2006-10-13 08:54:26 · answer #9 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 0 2

Prove it!

2006-10-13 08:47:27 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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