2006-10-12 14:45:25 · 8 answers · asked by desiladki 3 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
Silly answer:
Nowhere if it's just spinning in place!
Serious answer:
Multiple pi times the diameter (radius times 2) times 240 revolutions. The answer is about 42,000 inches. That's 2/3 of a mile.
2006-10-12 14:48:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
You need to get the circumference of the wheel, then multiply by 240.
It's as easy as pi! (Oh, I can't believe I made such a bad pun!)
To get the circumference, I hope you know the formula: 2*pi*r. If you don't know it, memorize it, as you will use it lots of times in your math career!
So, since r is 28 in, the circumference is 56*pi in.
The distance covered in 240 revolutions is 240*56*pi in., or 42,223 inches (rounded)
You can write this in terms of feet if you want: 3,518.58 ft
Or even in terms of miles (recall 1 mi = 5,280 ft): 0.666 mi.
2006-10-12 14:46:14 · answer #2 · answered by I ♥ AUG 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Calculate the circumference by multiplying its diameter in inches, feet, meters, et cetera, by pi and then by 240. Your answer will be in the units used to calculate the circumference.
2006-10-12 14:49:14 · answer #3 · answered by christopher s 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in the time of one revolution, the wheel covers a linear distance = 2*pi*r = 4*pi So, kind of revolutions in traveling one metre distance = a million/(4*pi) and kind of revolutions in traveling 30000 metres = 30000/(4*pi) = 2388 (approx)
2016-12-13 07:19:38 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
more than 960 feet
2006-10-12 14:47:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
42222.96 inches
3518.58 feet
0.6663917 miles
2006-10-12 14:59:50 · answer #6 · answered by Don K 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
3516ft 9.6ins
2006-10-12 15:05:03 · answer #7 · answered by Polo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3516.8 ft
2006-10-12 14:48:36 · answer #8 · answered by Coop 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋