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No. American war of independence was fought by the immigrant States against the authority from England, whereas the civil war was fought amongst the States on the question of abolition of slavery.

2006-10-12 19:42:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, first was the failure to abolish slavery at the time of War of Independence but the southern states never would've agreed to that so it wasn't included. Next was the southern states distrust of the northern states and their fear that they would control any government that was formed so states were given a great many rights and freedoms and the central government was weakened, they even lacked the authority to implement taxes. These two issues were the basic cause of the Civil War. Before the Civil War the country was a loose federation of states with a weak central government, after the Civil War we had a unified country where states rights were reduced, secession from the country was illegal and the federal government was much stronger.

2006-10-12 07:44:54 · answer #2 · answered by Tower of T 2 · 0 0

Yes, the American Civil War was fought because of the North's violation of the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution. In other words, the compact that everyone fought for against the British had been broken.

Slavery was a huge issue, but it was not the root cause of the war. It was the infringement of federal authority on states' rights guaranteed in the Tenth Amendment that caused the breach.

2006-10-12 05:56:32 · answer #3 · answered by Jim P 4 · 0 0

Yes. The sons of those who fought in the Revolution were the generals in the Civil War (Robert E. Lee was the son of Light Horse Harry Lee from the Revolution).

Yes. The American Revolution was fought over the right of colonies to withdraw from a government that didn't represent them. The American Civil War was fought over the right of states to withdraw from a government that didn't represent them sufficiently.

As one Civil War historian put it, before the Civil War the United States of America was always referred to in the plural. It was a collection of states. AFTER the Civil War, the United States of America was referred to as singular because the nation IS one nation. Shelby Foote was the historian.

2006-10-12 06:38:32 · answer #4 · answered by loryntoo 7 · 0 0

The 1st war was for independence from British and the 2nd war was to do with abolishing slavery. Garrison and his crew were into radical abolishment and south and north did not want anything to do with it, which started the civil war

2006-10-13 07:50:49 · answer #5 · answered by Priyanka C 1 · 0 0

Before the American revolution society was se up so that it was ok for one man to be the master of another man. This does not just mean slavery. If you were an aprentice you employer was in fact your master. Benjerman Franklin writes in his autobiagraphy taht his older brother who he was an apprentice to would beat him from time to time. The american revolution changed this mind set in americans. Now no one was really better then anyone else and certainly know one has any iherited right to rule over any one else. Of course they didnt go as far as to remove slavery but the revolution did set the stage for the unset for slavery reform.

2006-10-12 09:45:11 · answer #6 · answered by mark a 1 · 0 0

"Any connection"? Well, yes. One connection is they were both fought on "American" soil.

What did you have in mind? If you'd given any indication as to what you're really asking, people would be able to give you much better answers.

2006-10-12 06:12:11 · answer #7 · answered by tehabwa 7 · 0 0

Other than the British were sympathetic to the South nothing comes to mind immediately.

2006-10-12 05:58:54 · answer #8 · answered by Quasimodo 7 · 0 0

In the second one the side wanting to break free from a tyrant was beaten and did not become free.

2006-10-12 04:57:43 · answer #9 · answered by Meow the cat 4 · 1 0

The both took place here in the US

2006-10-12 04:58:08 · answer #10 · answered by Tiger by the Tail 7 · 0 1

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