English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

A punter kicks a footbal and it travels with the following component velocities: Viy=24.3 ft/sec Vix =51.3 ft/s

Calculate the initial velocity of the football at which angle it was kicked.

How would you do this? What formula would you use?

2006-10-11 17:55:27 · 4 answers · asked by zweeman16 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

You just need to make a diagram of the information that was given, and determine the vector representing the ball's total velocity.

It starts out going up 24.3 ft/sec and out 51.3 ft/sec. So the angle at which it was kicked is the angle whose tangent equals 24.3 / 51.3.

The velocity of the football can be found using the Pythagorean Theorem. 24.3 and 51.3 are the legs of a right triangle, and the ball's total velocity is equal to the length of the hypotenuse.

2006-10-11 18:09:49 · answer #1 · answered by actuator 5 · 0 0

draw a free body diagram showing the x and y components of the velocity.the resultant of the velocities can be found by completing the paralellogram,then using pythagora's theorem.the resultant is the initial velocity.to find the angle,TAN of the desired angle is equated to the sides in the order they have to be(tan is opposite to angle/adjacent to angle).after that u have to transpose for the angle.

2006-10-11 18:10:48 · answer #2 · answered by Tony B 2 · 0 0

V is the vector sum of Vx and Vy

V = sqrt(51.3^2 + 24.3^2) @ arctan(24.3/51.3)

2006-10-11 18:06:36 · answer #3 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0 0

i don't comprehend the place you're on your physics preparation, yet there's a theorem talked approximately as the "paintings-means Theorem" that truly ought to are available reachable here. not asserting that the kinematics ideas are incorrect, that's in basic terms a diverse attitude. The paintings-means theorem is as follows: paintings = replace in kinetic means If we discover the preliminary and very final kinetic energies of the practice using a million/2(mv^2), we are able to make your concepts up how lots paintings the frictional rigidity has to do on the practice to sluggish it down. Our replace in kinetic means is Kf - Ki, or very final kinetic means minus the preliminary kinetic means. of direction, we could like our very final kinetic means to be 0 by way of fact the practice is stopped. this provides you with a unfavorable volume by way of fact the consequence. This result's how lots paintings the frictional rigidity has to do on the practice with the intention to resign it. the subsequent step is to discover the frictional rigidity. The frictional rigidity is given by using F = uN the place u is the coefficient of friction and N is the traditional rigidity. thus, N = mg, the place m is the mass of the practice and g is the acceleration by way of gravity. rigidity would be unfavorable thus, assuming the direction of action of the practice is advantageous, which friction acts against. Now that all of us comprehend the quantity of (unfavorable) paintings to be finished and the (unfavorable) rigidity by way of friction, we are able to discover the area taken to accomplish this volume of paintings by using using the equation for paintings, that's: W = Fd, the place d is the area. enhancing this equation, we discover that d = W/F. when you consider that all of us comprehend the two W and F, in basic terms plug those parts into the equation, cancel the instruments, and you will finally end up which includes your distance in meters that it takes for the practice to thoroughly provide up. desire this enables!

2016-10-16 02:37:09 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers